Sitemap
Define inattentional blindness.
The inability to quickly detect changes in complex
With regard to attention, what is extinction?
Is neglect contralateral or ipsilateral?
Is left visual neglect associated with damage to t
Is right visual neglect associated with damage to
What does someone who has left neglect do?
What does someone who has right neglect do?
What is the task of the individual when completing
What is the name of the task where a patient is gi
_______ is a condition where individuals behave as
Attention is associated with which cerebral lobe?
Attention is associated with which parietal lobe?
Where does the where pathway go?
There are two pathways that leave V1, what are the
According to the textbook attention my work by cau
According to the textbook attention my work by cau
According to the textbook attention my work by cau
Players of a certain type of video game tend not t
How close must the second target be to the first i
What is attentional blink?
We are highly capable of performing an RSVP task a
What is the task of the participant in the RSVP ex
In research related to attention, what does RSVP s
We often erroneously combine one feature with anot
The problem faced by the visual system of determin
We often makes use of the fact that objects exist
A _______ task is one where the participant must s
What is a serial self terminating search?
A___________ search is one in which multiple stimu
A _________ task is one where the participants mus
What happens to reaction time when setting size in
Define salience.
True or false, In a visual search task, reaction t
In a visual search task, what is the task of the p
In a visual search task, what percentage of the tr
In a visual search task, what percentage of the tr
The number of items in a visual display of a visua
In a visual search, _______ is the scientific name
In a visual search task, ______ is the scientific
Generally speaking, a _______ task is one where th
True or false. According to the textbook, the best
You are looking for your car keys, you look in a p
What percentage of trials contain an invalid cue?
What percentage of trials contain a valid cue?
What happens to reaction time when an invalid cue
What happens to reaction time when a valid cue is
There are two different types of cues used in atte
With regard to attention, what is a cue?
The ability to pick up one of many stimuli is refe
______ attention refers to those instances when yo
____ attention refers to directing a sense organ a
_____ attention refers to our ability to attend to
___ attention refers to attention to stimuli in th
True or False, according to the textbook, attentio
Based on this excerpt, which of the following woul
Tecumseh believed that which of the following woul
Jefferson's call to avoid entangling alliances is
Jefferson's statement "that the minority possesses
Which of the following describes a policy of Jeffe
Who of the following would be most likely to agree
In the United States, support for the War of 1812
Which individual or group among the following woul
The dispute involving the Kentucky resolutions dem
The Kentucky and Virginia resolutions were issued
In addition to his farewell's address, part of Was
One of the strong reasons that Washington and othe
Who of the following would be most critical of Ham
Which of the following benefited most directly fro
Hamilton's constitutional argument was based on wh
Which of the following was the primary reason for
For some, the Revolutionary War was also a civil w
The group most likely to oppose the ideas expresse
Which of the rights in the excerpt is expressed in
In the context of the various disputes between the
Which of the following groups or individuals would
Which of the following documents most forcefully d
King George's rejection of the olive branch petiti
Which of the following is the underlying goal of t
Which of the following actions by the colonists is
Which of the following was a direct British respon
For the first time, the Stamp Act placed on the co
The resolution of the Stamp Act Congress expressed
Which of the following leaders from an earlier per
The concern expressed in this excerpt helps explai
What was the context in which Mayhew was writing?
Mayhew would probably apply his warning, "Not use
Which of the following possible influences on Mayh
According to Mayhew, the people should be willing
Which of the following was a long-term effect of t
Which group would most strongly support Zenger's p
Which of the following had an effect on attitudes
Locke's writings had the most direct influence on
How is the topic of Locke's writing similar to mos
The primary market for the Virginian tobacco crop
Which of the following groups made up most of the
Despite the success of tobacco in Virginia, the co
Bacon's Rebellion was initiated by a group of farm
Based on the information in this excerpt, what is
Which of the following best summarizes the attitud
Which of the following religious groups were the a
The activities of Coronado and other Spanish and P
Based on Coronado's observations, which of the fol
Which of the following is a reason historians are
Which of the following European nations would be t
The primary audience that Las Casas hoped to influ
Which of the following best explains the underlyin
Which of the following factors best explains why n
Which of these was a common reaction by Indians to
Which of the following is NOT always an "authorize
"__________" means a device that a person may ride
_______ means a motor vehicle designed and used pr
_____ means a motor vehicle designed and used prim
________ means a motor vehicle designed, used, or
_______ means a motor vehicle, other than a motorc
_________ means a motor vehicle used to transport
________ means a device that can be used to transp
Which if the following, by definition, is always u
___ means, used in reference to a vehicle, a perso
_______ means an individual, association, corporat
_______ means a paved shoulder.
_______ means the period beginning one-half hour b
Larry Cartwright was traveling west on a winding r
Christopher Estes was traveling west on a winding,
An operator of a vehicle facing a circular green l
"__________" means a motor vehicle other than a ta
The junction of an alley with a street or highway
The right of one vehicle or pedestrian to proceed
Richard James was traveling north on Barrier Rd. a
Justin Knight was traveling south on IH 35 feeder
Katrina was traveling north on Jones Rd and Willie
Shanna is walking west on a sidewalk and Beatrice
Which of the following is NOT authorized by the Tr
James Pamplona was traveling north on Killer Highw
What is the maximum speed allowed for an alley?
Reckless driving is punishable by __________
A person commits an offense if the person is at le
Lester Pugh is traveling north on Jordan Rd. when
A person commits an offense if the person operated
A person may not occupy a house trailer while it i
Which of the following violations is NOT in the Tr
Which of the following violations under the right
A __________ may not open the door of a motor vehi
Which of the following types of lights is NEVER re
A pedestrian facing a __________ may not enter a r
A pedestrian facing a __________ may not enter a r
What information is NOT required on a "Notice To A
An officer shall issue a written notice to appear
The time and place specified in the notice to appe
Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following statements are true?
A 1995 Chevy Impala with the motor removed is a __
The department may not issue a commercial driver's
- Quotation Question. With what words did John the B
- Quotation Question: What great statement did Peter
- Quotation Question: What is the Golden Rule?
- Quotation Question: What is the mission of the Chu
- Quotation Question: What power is there in united
- Quotation Question: Quote the verse of Romans chap
- Quotation Question: What rule do we find in Prover
- Quotation Question: Quote the verse of Philippians
- Quotation Question: According to Zechariah, how ca
- Quotation Question: Quote the verse of Acts chapte
- Quotation Question: What did Peter tell the people
- Which person does Simon Bolivar consider his paren
- In the Spanish social hierarchy structure, Simon B
- How many listings do you need to have to adjust UP
- What are the recommended ways to take X-rays of up
- What does Hester's letter "A" eventually come to r
- What does Chillingworth pretend to be?
- Where do Hester and Pearl live?
- What color of clothing does Hester always wear?
- What item of clothing does Hester make for Governo
- How does Pearl become wealthy?
- How do Hester and Dimmesdale plan to escape their
- What mark can supposedly be seen on Dimmesdale's c
- How does Pearl acknowledge Dimmesdale as her fathe
- Why does Pearl not recognize her mother when she s
- What natural phenomenon comes to symbolize both Di
- Next to whom is Hester buried?
- How does Hester support herself financially?
- How does Mistress Hibbins eventually die?
- Who is Mistress Hibbins?
- In what city do Hester and Pearl live?
- Which of the following is a method Dimmesdale uses
- What item in the governor's mansion shows Hester a
- What is situated immediately outside the door of t
- With whom has Chillingworth been living before he
- Where do Hester and Chillingworth live before comi
- In what century is the story of Hester Prynne set?
- What are the risk factors for chronic disease?
- What are the determinants of health?
- What are the 3 categories of prevention?
- What are the 3 categories of intervention?
- What are the 3 CORE functions of a PHN workforce?
- What statement below best describes the term 'risk
- Population priorities are determined through parti
- The National preventative health strategy provides
- The Responsible Children's Marketing Initiative is
- What is the goal of the Responsible Children's Mar
- The Core function(s) for the Public Health Nutriti
- The number one "global" public health nutrition is
- Groups such as the Obesity Policy Coalition advoca
- "The media do not present simple reflections of ex
- In the eight concepts of media literacy, the third
- If you were a nutritionist in a local council that
- Give an example of the link between behaviour and
- Public health nutrition focuses on:
- A socio-ecological approach to public health nutri
- Which of the following best describes an example o
- Cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes compris
- When planning an intervention to prevent chronic d
- Bill has recently had a stroke and spends some tim
- Implementing policy is an example of what type of
- When considering the three types of prevention eff
- Sarah is a dietitian who works at a Medicare Local
- Antoinette Tyrrell, marketing manager Coca-Cola So
- Which of the following goals would be appropriate
- The following goal is appropriate for which types
- As a Speech-Languge Pathologist, you evaluate a 4-
- ______ is an intensive treatment originally design
- ________ starts with the most stimulable phonologi
- The following approaches are language-based approa
- ______ refers to the ability to perceive differenc
- ____ is the ability to produce the target phoneme
- _____ refers to how easy it is to understand the i
- In assessment of phonology and articulation, _____
- _____ is a neurological speech sound disorder that
- Speech-sound disorders can have a negative impact
- Seventy-five percent of children outgrow their spe
- ____ are disorders of conceptualization of languag
- Most of the phonological processes that toddlers u
- Young children use ______ to simplify a difficult
- At 6-7 months, babbling changes into ______.
- By _____, infants are able to imitate tone and pit
- Consonant phonemes are classified according to
- A _______ is an abnormal opening in an anatomical
- ______ are voice disorders that result from emotio
- An inability to control vocal intensity of loudnes
- Voice disorders in children are usually related to
- For voice disorders, deviations may be in which of
- Modifications in the length and _______ of the voc
- _____ is a result of not varying habitual speaking
- Vocal pitch is measured in ______, whereas vocal l
- _____ is the perceptual correlate of intensity.
- ____ is the perceptual correlate of fundamental fr
- Velopharyngeal insufficiency is failure of the vel
- ______ is the quality of voice that is produced fr
- An indicator for a positive recovery in someone wh
- The "C" in the ABC's of stuttering refers to
- ______ is the consistent ability to move the speec
- The goal of the SLP working with a fluency client
- According to Mrs. Barbara Kucharski the most impor
- As many as ______ of preschool children who had be
- Selection of intervention techniques depends on
- _______ is a fluency shaping technique that reduce
- Therapy might be recommended if:
- Three or more within word disfluencies per _____ w
- The ______ theory of stuttering contends that stut
- The _______ theory of stuttering asserts that stut
- The _______ theory of stuttering proposes an actua
- In Phase Four of the developmental framework of st
- In Phase One of the developmental framework of stu
- Onset of developmental stuttering is between what
- ______ is typically associated with neurological d
- ______ is the most common form of stuttering; it o
- The primary goal of intervention for a client with
- Cognitive rehabilitation that focuses on developin
- Mr. Smith is a Speech Therapy client of yours that
- Car accident, firearms, and falls are the leading
- Hypoxia is an example of a Closed Head Injury char
- A complex injury causing disruption in normal func
- This picture is representative of a drawing done b
- Left side neglect, impaired judgement and self -mo
- Aphasia intervention should incorporate the client
- A functional assessment of communicative abilities
- When families ask how long their loved one will ha
- The primary cause of aphasia is
- Difficulty chewing or swallowing is
- Meaningless or irrelevant speech with intonation i
- Difficulty with naming and word-finding is
- A patient who presents with slow, labored speech a
- Wernicke's Aphasia is characterized by paraphasias
- Aphasia means
- Literacy can be used in therapy to promote Pragmat
- A child that exhibits typical to above average wor
- Which of the following should be targeted in the A
- Being able to manipulate sounds through the proces
- The knowledge that print has function and meaning
- Reading Development begins around the age of:
- Which of the following are needed to build reading
- _______ occurs as a reader combines decoding skill
- The knowledge of sounds, syllables, and the sound
- According to ASHA, the role of a Speech-Language P
- The process used in reading to segment a word and
- A Literacy Impairment in adulthood could be caused
- The use of visual modes of communication including
- Infants who have been Drug-Exposed or have Fetal A
- Success of intervention in those with language imp
- The most common form of injury in children is
- When trying to elicit specific language features s
- The process of probing performance to identify pos
- Mild to severe deficits in the areas of social int
- When evaluating a child for Autism spectrum Disord
- Which of the following is NOT a red flag for Autis
- Which of the following Childhood Language Disorder
- Children with a language impairment typically have
- Ninety percent of language form including phonolog
- Children typically begin combining 2 words togethe
- First words typically emerge at around
- A wide variety of disorders or delays that may be
- The ___ covers the opening to the trachea during a
- Food should enter the ____ when swallowed.
- The tongue, lips, and teeth make up the ____.
- The rules of language compose its ____.
- The sound produced by vocal fold vibration is
- The primary function of the vocal tract is
- Speech occurs during ____.
- During phonation the vocal folds ___.
- The trachea is part of the ___.
- The energy for verbal communication comes from the
- During speech breathing, exhalation is active and
- When documenting you should write your notes so th
- The acronym S.O.A.P. when used in writing progress
- Incidental Teaching when providing Intervention fo
- Which goal does not contain a measurable way to ga
- ___ is the exchange of ideas between senders and r
- When assessing vocal quality the following should
- The way speech sounds are formed is referred to as
- Stuttering is classified as ____.
- ____ of human communication is nonverbal
- Children who meet developmental milestones on sche
- Rules of pragmatics would prevent you from _____.
- About ______ percent of the total of U.S. populati
- A child who has limited vocabulary, misuses words,
- The rate and rhythm of speech may be referred to a
- The success or failure of communication depends in
- Dialects are differences that reflect a particular
- Dialects are considered disorders by ASHA.
- Pragmatic rules of communication vary from culture
- If a child has difficulty arranging words in a sen
- Which of the following contains a bound morpheme?
- The form of language includes ___
- Linguistic Intuition refers to ___
- The age range of individuals with communication di
- Which is not a principle of ASHA's code of ethics?
- Some degree of hearing loss occurs in ____ percent
- School-age children with communication disorders o
- What percent of all children born in the U.S. have
- SLP Aides ___
- A principle of ASHA's Code of Ethics is that profe
- According to ASHA, Evidence Based Practice should
- Audiologist help contribute to the prevention of h
- The governing professional organization for speech
- Audiologists are required to
- What is NOT a tax issue that multinational corpora
- What can investors who want to compare one company
- What is the goal of the International Accounting S
- Which of the following best illustrates a function
- Which source of funds to financing international t
- How do options contracts hedge exchange rate risk?
- What are two short-term effects of currency moveme
- A successful shoe manufacturer has long been subco
- What is most likely to happen if a computer compan
- Why many companies outsource?
- What should a smart company do regarding customer
- Frederick Sanger is a twice recipient of the Nobel
- During World War II, when did Germany attack Franc
- Germany signed the Armistice Treaty on ____ and Wo
- Hermann Scheer (Germany) received right Livelihood
- Guru Gobind Singh was
- Georgia, Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan became the me
- Film and TV institute of India is located at
- Fire temple is the place of worship of which of th
- From the following, choose the set in which names
- During eleventh Antarctic Expedition in Nov. 1991/
- Friction can be reduced by changing from
- Guwahati High Court is the judicature of
- Gravity setting chambers are used in industries to
- Famous sculptures depicting art of love built some
- Each year World Red Cross and Red Crescent Day is
- Federation Cup, World Cup, Allywyn International T
- For the Olympics and World Tournaments, the dimens
- Dumping is
- First China War was fought between
- Gulf cooperation council was originally formed by
- First Afghan War took place in
- Guarantee to an exporter that the importer of his
- Golf player Vijay Singh belongs to which country?
- Exposure to sunlight helps a person improve his he
- Habeas Corpus Act 1679
- Galileo was an Italian astronomer who
- First human heart transplant operation conducted b
- Epsom (England) is the place associated with
- Fastest shorthand writer was
- FFC stands for
- Hitler party which came into power in 1933 is know
- For which of the following disciplines is Nobel Pr
- Garampani sanctuary is located at
- Eritrea, which became the 182nd member of the UN i
- Entomology is the science that studies
- Grand Central Terminal, Park Avenue, New York is t
- Laboratory results reveal decreased levels of prol
- A nurse is administering risperidone (Risperdal) t
- Which of the following components should a nurse r
- A newly admitted client has taken thioridazine (Me
- A client states, "I hear voices that tell me that
- A client has been recently admitted to an inpatien
- A college student has quit attending classes, isol
- During an admission assessment, a nurse notes that
- If clozapine (Clozaril) therapy is being considere
- A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribe
- An aging client diagnosed with chronic schizophren
- A client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an ant
- After taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 1 mont
- A client diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia pres
- A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing
- A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physic
- A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to r
- Which statement should indicate to a nurse that an
- A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia sta
- Which nursing behavior will enhance the establishm
- Which nursing intervention would be most appropria
- A client diagnosed with psychosis NOS (not otherwi
- A client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, "Can
- During an admission assessment, a nurse asks a cli
- A client diagnosed with schizophrenia tells a nurs
- A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with paran
- Parents ask a nurse how they should reply when the
- A 16-year-old-client diagnosed with paranoid schiz
- A client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder i
- A paranoid client presents with bizarre behaviors,
- Which of the following does the text suggest is on
- The adversarial nature of the modern press has pro
- The text suggests American government is the "leak
- In an age in which the media are very important, w
- The president of the United States is unlike the c
- Which of the following presidents first made his p
- The first president to engage in the systematic cu
- The potential impact of the media coverage is cert
- A study of the top ten newspapers and the Associat
- Early in American history, newspapers had virtuall
- Conservative dominance in talk radio can be best e
- Research suggests members of the national news med
- Since the 1980s, studies of media bias have reache
- The text suggests that, if the Fairness Doctrine h
- In general, the Supreme Court has upheld the right
- For a public official in the United States to win
- Once something is published, a newspaper may be su
- An irony concerning government regulation of the n
- In the late 1980s the "watchdog" function of the m
- The emphasis the media places on its role as "scor
- One of Jimmy Carter's signal achievements in deali
- Which of the following statements concerning natio
- Research suggests _____ especially have turned the
- Joint Operating Agreements are important to consid
- Politicians wishing to make news are well advised
- In 2000, the average sound bite of a presidential
- The invention of radio was a politically important
- Which of the following was not among the achieveme
- Which of the following was a milestone in the deve
- Politicians have become more heavily dependent on
- When CBS News ran a story claiming President Bush
- The key to shutting down an xterm window is to kno
- Which UNIX command from the menu bar moves a windo
- What action puts unneeded windows out of the way w
- Evidence based practitioners ask whether there is
- How many listings do you need to have to adjust UP
- What are the recommended ways to take X-rays of up
- ____ is an applied science devoted to incorporatin
- People suffering from ____ feel distressed when de
- ____ is a technology-related health condition that
- A(n) ____ is an injury or disorder of the muscles,
- Airline reservation systems, communications networ
- A(n) _______ is a device that contains surge prote
- To protect against electrical power variations, us
- A momentary overvoltage, called a ____, occurs whe
- A _______ is a complete power failure.
- A(n) ____ occurs when the electrical supply or vol
- Examples of ____ devices include smartphones, digi
- ______ is the process of initiating contact betwee
- A USB _______ is a device that plugs in a USB port
- Newer USB versions are ____, which means they supp
- Devices that connect to a ____ include the followi
- A ____ is used to join a cable to a port.
- Instead of the term, port, the term, ____, sometim
- Computers and mobile devices connect to peripheral
- The general price range for a supercomputer is ___
- A(n) ____ is a special-purpose computer that funct
- Activity trackers, smartwatches, and smartglasses
- Your collection of stored media is called your med
- ___ is the number of horizontal and vertical pixel
- Cognitive psychologists have studied the effects o
- Many smartphones and mobile devices includepicture
- With ____ service, users can send and receive shor
- A(n) ____ keyboard is a full-sized keyboard that c
- A(n) _______ is an Internet-capable phone that usu
- Popular types of ____ are smartphones, digital cam
- ___ computing refers to an environment of servers
- With weights that exceed 100 tons, ____ can store
- A self-service _______ is a freestanding terminal
- A _______ is a computer, usually with limited proc
- A server ____ is a network of several servers toge
- ____ is the practice of sharing or pooling computi
- A _______ server is a server built into an upright
- A ________ server is a server that is housed in a
- Examples of ____ servers include application serve
- Services provided by ____ include storing content
- A ____, which is made of metal or plastic, is a fr
- Some people use the term, ____, to refer to the ca
- Some tablets include a ____ that you can use inste
- A ____ tablet is a tablet that has a screen it its
- A thin laptop that uses the Windows operating syst
- A laptop, also called a(n) ____ computer, is a thi
- ___ consists of electronic components that store i
- Two main components on the motherboard are the ___
- A ____ is the main circuit board of the personal c
- Types of ____ include desktops, laptops, and table
- A ____ is an electronic device, operating under th
- Abusive or insulting messages are called ____.
- ____ is the conduct expected of individuals while
- ____ is an Internet standard that permits file upl
- ____ enables users to speak to other users via the
- In a discussion group, a ____ consists of the orig
- A ____ is a real-time typed conversation with many
- __ means that you and the people with whom you are
- You ______ to an email list by adding your email a
- The ____ symbol is used to separate a user name fr
- A ____ is a program that extends the capability of
- Your browser may require Adobe Reader to view and
- Many webpages use ____, which is the appearance of
- The GIF format works best for images that ____.
- A(n) ____ is a visual representation of data or in
- For what reason do web designers use responsive we
- A ____ website allows users to collect content fro
- A ____ is a website that provides a variety of Int
- ____ e-commerce occurs when one consumer sells dir
- A customer visits an online business through an el
- _____ is the process of transferring data in a con
- A____ is a collaborative website that allows users
- The term ____ refers to the worldwide collection o
- The collection of a user's Tweets make up a(n) ___
- A(n) ________ site is a website that enables membe
- A ________ is a word(s) preceded by the # symbol t
- Depending on your search text, search engines may
- Search engines require that you enter a word or ph
- What does GPS stand for?
- A web ____ contains content that has changed on a
- A webpage has a unique address, called a web addre
- The more widely used web browsers are Chrome, Fire
- Current browsers support ____ browsing, which allo
- ___ refers to websites that provide a means for us
- A web ____ is a computer that delivers requested w
- Visitors to a ____ webpage all see the same conten
- When you enter a domain name in a browser, a(n) __
- The domain name system (DNS) is the method that th
- For websites outside the United States, the suffix
- The organization that approves and controls top-le
- A(n) ____ address is a sequence of numbers that un
- The major carriers of network traffic are known co
- A ________ is equal to approximately one million c
- _______ represents the amount of data that travels
- A(n) ____ is a business that provides individuals
- Many public locations, such as airports, hotels, s
- Fixed wireless provides high-speed Internet connec
- Today, users often connect to the Internet via ___
- Earth has a magnetic axis which is angled ________
- How long does it take the moon to revolve once aro
- What kind of eclipse occurs when the moon blocks s
- Earth is closest to the sun during which season in
- How long does it take the moon to rotate once?
- First-time exporters and importers often employ a
- With respect to INCOTERMS, the seller transfers al
- Which of the following are not addressed by terms
- First-time exporters and importers often employ a
- With respect to INCOTERMS, the seller transfers al
- Which of the following are not addressed by terms
- Logistics management encompasses more activities t
- Inventory management is probably the single most i
- A(n) _____ finds and services markets overseas on
- Water ports can be controlled and managed by _____
- In terms of intermodal traffic, US railroads load
- The best trading partners for the US are Canada an
- An emphasis on customer satisfaction was NOT one o
- Which one was NOT one of the characteristics of th
- "Reverse logistics" deals with the activities invo
- Transportation decisions are more complicated in i
- International logistics includes activities that a
- "Supply chain management" is now considered to inc
- Information on foreign countries, including their
- The euro has replaced the currencies of all the ot
- The North American Free Trade Association (NAFTA)
- World trade in services represents a higher percen
- The country that represents the largest share of i
- A firm just beginning to ship internationally is r
- Materials management refers to what the firm does
- Logistics was originally a military term
- One expert has suggested that shippers can general
- A manager may pay more for one element of service
- The micturition reflex
- When the tubular load of a substance exceeds the t
- Angiotensin II causes
- Which of these conditions increases the amount of
- Drinking a large amount of beer results in
- Juxtaglomerular cells secrete
- Urea diffuses out of the __________ , and into the
- The countercurrent multiplier mechanism of the nep
- Which of these substances is actively transported
- Renal tubules are __________ permeable to urea tha
- At which of these locations is the osmolality of t
- All of these compounds are reabsorbed from the fil
- The permeability of the distal tubule and the coll
- These ions are cotransported across the apical mem
- The percentage of filtrate volume reabsorbed in th
- The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is _______
- In kidney nephron epithelial cells, __________ are
- In kidney nephron epithelial cells, solutes are co
- During tubular reabsorption in the proximal tubule
- As filtrate moves through the thin segment of the
- A decrease in plasma proteins results in
- Of the filtrate that enters the nephron, about wha
- Which of these substances normally cannot pass thr
- The part of the plasma volume that passes through
- The part of the total cardiac output that passes t
- The movement of substances from the filtrate back
- Active transport of substances from the blood into
- Skeletal muscle that surrounds the urethra as it e
- The triangular area of the urinary bladder between
- Given these vessels: 1. arcuate vein 2. afferen
- The __________ are specialized portions of the per
- The part of a nephron between Bowman's capsule and
- Collectively, the capillary epithelium, basement m
- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is formed where the
- The tuft of capillaries in the renal corpuscle is
- Given these parts of a nephron: 1. renal corpusc
- The basic histological and functional unit of the
- The major calyces of the kidney converge to form a
- The apex of the renal pyramid is called the
- Fibrous connective tissue that surrounds each kidn
- Which of the following is an ethical concern of ac
- What would be an advantage of having all countries
- What is not a reason that accounting standards may
- What is "expectation gap"?
- What is a possible danger if politics plays too bi
- What is not a source of pressure that may influenc
- The purpose of the International Accounting Standa
- Financial accounting standard-setting in the Unite
- Which of the following is not considered a compone
- What is the purpose of a FASB Staff Position?
- Rule 203 of the Code of Professional Conduct addre
- Which of the following publications does not quali
- Which of the following is not a part of generally
- The most significant current source of generally a
- Generally accepted accounting principles
- Members of the Financial Accounting Standards Boar
- The purpose of Statements of Financial Accounting
- An organization that has not published accounting
- Which of the following organizations has not been
- Which of the following pronouncements were issued
- The American Institute of Certified Public Account
- The purpose of the Emerging Issues Task Force is t
- FASB Technical Bulletins
- Which of the following is not a publication of the
- The Financial Accounting Standards Board employs a
- The major distinction between the Financial Accoun
- The Financial Accounting Foundation
- The Financial Accounting Standards Board
- The Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) wa
- Companies that are listed on a stock exchange are
- The body that has the power to prescribe the accou
- The role of the Securities and Exchange Commission
- Which organization is responsible for issuing Emer
- What is the purpose of Emerging Issues Task Force?
- The passage of a new FASB Standards Statement requ
- Why was it believed that accounting standards that
- Characteristics of generally accepted accounting p
- A characteristic of generally accepted accounting
- Which organization was responsible for issuing Acc
- Why did the AICPA create the Accounting Principles
- Which of the following organizations has been resp
- What is due process in the context of standard set
- What is the relationship between the Securities an
- Which of the following is a general limitation of
- A common set of accounting standards and procedure
- Accounting principles are "generally accepted" onl
- Which perspective is adopted as part of the object
- Accrual accounting is used because
- When making decisions, investors are interested in
- Primary users for general-purpose financial statem
- What is the objective of financial reporting?
- Which of the following is not a major challenge fa
- Financial statements in the early 2000s provide in
- An effective capital allocation process
- Whether a business is successful and thrives is de
- How does accounting help the capital allocation pr
- The process of identifying, measuring, analyzing,
- Which of the following represents a form of commun
- All the following are differences between financia
- The information provided by financial reporting pe
- There are those that believe that the analysis of
- Which of the following is not a method of "benchma
- Return on Equity: In the latest year, Photon, Inc.
- Why is the quick ratio considered by some to be a
- Which of the following is a benefit of a common-si
- DuPont equation: Sorenstam Corp has an equity mult
- DuPont equation: Saunders, Inc., has a ROE of 18.7
- DuPont equation: Andrade Corp has debt of $2,834,9
- Profitability ratios: Tigger Corp. has reported th
- DuPont equation: GenTech Pharma has reported the f
- Profitability ratio: Juventus Corp has total asset
- Market-value ratios: Perez Electronics Corp. has r
- Market-value ratio: RTR Corp. has reported a net i
- Leverage ratio: Dreisen Traders has total debt of
- Leverage ratio: What will be a firm's equity multi
- Leverage ratio: Your firm has an equity multiplier
- Coverage ratios: Fahr Company had depreciation exp
- Coverage ratios: Sectors, Inc., has an EBIT of $7,
- Coverage ratio: Trident Corp. has debt of $3.35 mi
- Efficiency ratio: Deutsche Bearings has total sale
- Efficiency ratio: Ellicott City Manufacturers, Inc
- Efficiency ratio: Jet, Inc., has net sales of $712
- Efficiency ratio: Ellicott City Manufacturers, Inc
- Efficiency ratio: Gateway Corp. has an inventory t
- Efficiency ratio: Jason Traders has sales of $833,
- Efficiency ratio: If Viera, Inc., has an accounts
- Efficiency ratio: If Randolph Corp. has accounts r
- Liquidity ratio: Ronaldinho Trading Co. is require
- Liquidity ratio: Zidane Enterprises has a current
- Liquidity ratio: Bathez Corp. has receivables of $
- Liquidity ratio: Lionel, Inc., has current assets
- Limitations of ratio analysis include all but
- Peer group analysis can be performed by
- Which one of the following statements about trend
- Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of
- Which one of the following is a criticism of equat
- The DuPont equation shows that a firm's ROE is det
- Which one of the following statements is NOT corre
- For a firm that has both debt and equity,
- For a firm that has no debt in its capital structu
- Coverage ratios, like times interest earned and ca
- Which one of the following statements is NOT corre
- If firm A has a higher debt-to-equity ratio than f
- Which one of the following statements is correct?
- Which one of the following statements is NOT true?
- All but one of the following is true about the inv
- All else being equal, which one of the following w
- Which one of the following does NOT change a firm'
- All but one of the following is true about quick r
- Which of the following is NOT true of liquidity ra
- Which of the following is true of ratio analysis?
- Which of the following is NOT true of liquidity ra
- Common-size financial statements:
- All but one of the following is true of common-siz
- All but one of the following is true of common-siz
- An individual analyzing a firm's financial stateme
- Anyone analyzing a firm's financial statements sho
- A firm's management analyzes financial statement's
- The creditors of a firm analyze financial statemen
- Shareholders analyze financial statements in order
- Financial statements can be analyzed from the foll
- In order to calculate bond premium or discount, yo
- True or False? - The allowance method is required
- Which payroll taxes is withheld from an employee's
- True or False? - Interest Rates are generally expr
- True or False? - If you Issue a bond at a premium,
- What is the formula to calculate basic interest?
- One way to reduce indoor air pollution in develope
- According to environmental scientists, all of the
- According to a 2007 EPA report, between 1980 and 2
- National ambient air quality standards
- How many people are thought to die prematurely bec
- In the United States, how many people get cancer f
- The people least vulnerable to air pollution are
- In 1988, the EPA and the U.S. Surgeon General reco
- On average, radon levels should be monitored conti
- Radioactive ____ is a product of uranium decay and
- Respiratory illnesses in developing countries are
- Exposure to indoor formaldehyde pollution is least
- Furniture stuffing, paneling, particle board, and
- All of the following are on EPA's "four most dange
- Sick Building Syndrome is linked to all of the fol
- Of the following, the least vulnerable to air poll
- Experts rate indoor air pollution as a
- Of the following strategies to reduce acid deposit
- Approximately ___ % of China's cropland suffers fr
- Acid deposition has been linked to
- In general, acid deposition has harmful effects fo
- Experts rate acid rain as a
- Acid deposition is best classified as a
- Typical rain in the eastern United States has a pH
- Acid deposition is properly defined as the ____ de
- A temperature inversion is the result of
- Which of the following statements is true?
- Which of the following would not be a factor that
- Gray-air smog comes from suspended particles of
- Primary pollutants from burning coal include all o
- Photochemical smog is characteristic of urban area
- Photochemical smog is formed when primary pollutan
- Harmful chemicals emitted directly into the air fr
- An email contract is
- Inferior performance is:
- Big High Drug Store contracts to hire Anna Sue as
- Squeegie, 17 years old, buys a car for $20,000.00
- Generally, Consideration must be:
- Jenna saw a vase in a store. A tag on the vase sai
- Which of the following statements concerning the e
- CitiBank makes a mistake at an auction which costs
- The City announces a plan to build a multimillion
- Sara and Jesse are getting married. They discuss a
- An award of __________ performance orders the brea
- Alpha Nu Theta verbally orders $3.500.00 of screen
- According to Mr. Cochran, courts do not enforce "g
- A __________ is a person who agrees to pay a debt
- You contract with the Outhouse Mice to perform 3 s
- You contract to rent a room at the inn for 2 month
- When a client accepts the services of an accountan
- An oral contract for the sale of land is:
- Jack and Jill were discussing business over lunch
- If a contract requires the occurrence of an event
- Consists of who (sender) communicates what (messag
- Occurs when there is positive verbal and negative
- ____ is sharing meaning with others without using
- When you assume that everyone in your group has th
- Words are ______, so meaning is not contained in w
- ____ are representations of referents - whatever t
- ____ is a structured system of symbols for sharing
- ______ is a process because changes in events and
- (Dimension) Refers to how messages define or redef
- Dimension) Refers to the information transmitted.
- __ as a transaction also means that all parties in
- ____ is a transaction. Each person is both a sende
- This may influence us to view competent communicat
- The I-Knew-It-Already tendency.
- Without understanding the complexities of the ____
- _____ is a tool that can be used to help solve mos
- Groups whose members are connected by electronic t
- What injury can occur when the neck undergoes sudd
- Sprains occur in what type of tissue?
- What musculoskeletal problem causes the most absen
- Which of the following contributes to increased sp
- Spinal relaxation phenomenon explains what?
- What is the dominant force on the spine during act
- What type of articulation occurs between the bodie
- Attachment to the ribs limits range of motion in w
- In anatomical position, where is the center of gra
- What action(s) do posterior trunk muscles cause wh
- Which abdominal muscles cause rotation to the left
- Anterior pelvic tilt facilitates what type of spin
- Which type of exaggerated curve is often caused by
- Lateral deviations in spinal curvature are called
- What is the enlarged cervical portion of the supra
- What causes the pumping action (influx and outflux
- What is the most common type of spinal loading dur
- The most superior cervical vertebrae is called wha
- Unusually high incidences of pars interarticularis
- What is the most common type of vertebral fracture
- Which of the following are potential consequences
- Transverse or spinous process fractures may result
- A typical geriatric disc has a fluid content that
- What joint is usually the culprit in low back pain
- What is the result when part of the nucleus pulpos
- The rectus abdominis causes flexion when contracte
- Lack of flexibility in which of the following musc
- The sacral region of the spine is fused to which o
- What type of joint occurs between the superior and
- Which vertebrae are the largest?
- The spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae in
- The articulations between adjacent vertebral bodie
- The condition of exaggerated thoracic curvature is
- Which of the following is not true about lordosis?
- Which of the following spinal curves are referred
- Which of the following spinal curves are referred
- Which statement is not true about the intervertebr
- Which of the following helps the spine absorb shoc
- Which part of the vertebrae bears the most weight?
- Which of the following vertebral regions has the b
- Movement of the spine occurs in which plane(s)?
- What is the anatomical name for the big toe?
- Which of the following does not attach to the calc
- Symptoms of plantar fasciitis include which of the
- During walking, which of the following actions is
- The strong layer of fibrous tissue which covers th
- Which of the following does not bear weight?
- Patellofemoral pain syndrome is likely associated
- Runner's knee is associated with which of the foll
- Which of the following statements is true regardin
- Which of the following statements is true regardin
- The medial and lateral collateral ligaments limit
- What is the largest and most complex joint in the
- Which of the following causes hip abduction?
- Which of the following causes hip adduction?
- Where is the weakest point of the femur?
- Which of the following characterizes a "bow-legged
- Which of the following is the most typical cause o
- Fractures in the ankle region occur most often to
- Which of the following is/are nonaxial joint(s)?
- Which of the following is the most common of all k
- Which of the following statements is/are true?
- Which of the following conditions must be met for
- For a buy-side banker advising its client, all of
- The buy-side adviser typically uses the financial
- Which group within investment banking typically mo
- How long does a typical auction process take from
- Which group within investment banking typically mo
- Professionals from which of the following investme
- In preparing marketing materials for an M&A sale p
- All of the following potential issues are typicall
- Traditionally, who among the following provides a
- In an M&A transaction, how does the use of a meani
- All of the following due diligence findings might
- Which group within investment banking typically mo
- Buy-side advisers are typically chosen on the basi
- How long does a two-step merger typically take?
- Which section of the merger proxy details how the
- Which two of the following situations increase the
- Buyers typically expect to meet all of the followi
- Which of the following typically has the highest b
- Which of the following play a lead role in craftin
- When an investment bank renders a fairness opinion
- Who typically provides the stapled financing in a
- Which two investment banking groups communicate co
- Which of the following documents is most important
- Which two of the following engagement letter provi
- Which two of the following are examples of outs as
- In which two of the following scenarios might a bu
- What does a "one-step" merger refer to?
- Which two of the following are key marketing point
- Buy-side advisers are granted access to the data r
- Synergies directly affect the calculations for whi
- Why do buyers hire an investment bank? I. To dete
- How many bidders are typically accepted into the s
- A buy-side adviser would need to analyze which of
- An effective buy-side adviser may argue for all of
- Who typically makes a recommendation to the client
- An effective buy-side adviser may use all of the f
- Which of the following participants in an M&A tran
- The buy-side adviser's financial model typically c
- All of the following are common M&A strategies use
- How often do investment banking industry bankers,
- Which of the following are typical buyer concerns
- At what point in an M&A sale process is an online
- All of the following are key frames of reference f
- What is the typical investment time horizon for st
- In the event the sell-side adviser is providing a
- Investment bankers communicate internally with col
- How many potential buyers are typically contacted
- A public company wishes to communicate with an ana
- At which stage of an M&A sale process are bidders
- Following SEC approval of the merger proxy disclos
- Why might a seller prefer an asset sale to a stock
- Which two of the following opportunities are typic
- In an M&A sales, which of the following are typica
- Which two of the following traditionally help buye
- A buyer's final bid package is expected to include
- Which two of the following typically take the lead
- All of the following are reasons why acquirers spe
- The buy-side adviser uses all of the following tac
- Why do public strategic bidders typically perform
- As a closing condition, to what extent must a give
- Target company shareholder approval for an M&A tra
- How many potential buyers are typically contacted
- How is the sharing of sensitive due diligence info
- All of the following resources outside of the targ
- All of the following due diligence findings might
- Which two of the following does the buy-side advis
- Professionals from which of the following investme
- Which of the following participants plays the cent
- In an M&A deal purchasing synergies refer to
- Investment bankers work internally with colleagues
- All of the following is non-financial deal data th
- The sell-side adviser's key responsibilities for c
- For a buy-side banker advising its client, which o
- All of the following are typically members of the
- Which of the following are lawyers most sensitive
- Which two of the following does the buy-side advis
- How much time are buyers typically afforded to sub
- At which point in the M&A process does the sell-si
- All of the following are fair statements regarding
- All of the following are ways in which indemnifica
- Which of the following buy-side due diligence disc
- Which of the following is a legally binding contra
- Within the context of M&A processes, what does a n
- The typical CIM contains all of the following EXCE
- Under what circumstances can a buyer withdraw from
- All of the following are typically included in the
- In which case would a buyer perform accretion/dilu
- How many rounds does a typical auction process con
- Approximately how long are prospective buyers give
- Why do sellers hire an investment bank? I. Design
- Which two of the following are often heavily negot
- Which of the following are key components of the s
- How many bidders are typically invited to the seco
- Which two of the following do buyers typically pla
- At what stage in the M&A process do buyers start t
- All of the following are typically provided access
- How many potential buyers are typically contacted
- Investment banks help client companies assess all
- For the sale of a sizeable business, who typically
- How many pages is a typical M&A Confidential Infor
- Post Carotid Endarterectomy on ward, patient seize
- CHADS2 score. Which is not a feature?
- Cephalothin doesn't cover:
- Best position for IABP is 1-2 cm:
- Atrial septal defect, where is the murmur heard th
- Severe asthma attack. Given continuous nebs & IV h
- A man is working with electrical appliances at hom
- Endocarditis prophylaxis in patient with MVR appro
- A child with intra-operative blood loss. A cardiac
- When instructing ward staff on monitoring for resp
- A pregnant lady is undergoing neuroradiological co
- Essential diagnostic criteria on ECG for LBBB
- The features of Pierre Robin sequence include clef
- Systemic Vascular resistance index (SVRI) is equal
- A diagnostic test has a sensitivity of 90% and a s
- If a patient experiences parasthesia in the little
- An indication for NON-operative management of blun
- What drug should NOT be used for tocolysis in 32/4
- Recognised weaknesses of systematic reviews includ
- Preoperative assessment shows a Mallampati (ML) sc
- In infants with congenital pyloric stenosis
- The nerve supplying area of skin between greater t
- What is NOT a contraindication to MRI?
- Penetrating injury to chest. What part of the hear
- How long prior to a spinal anaesthetic should dabi
- Day 4 epidural. On 40 mg SC enoxeparin daily posto
- Preoperative autologous blood donation results in
- Epidural block to T2 causes all of the following E
- In what proportion of people is the AV node suppli
- Bowel surgery patient. Best method for intraoperat
- What percentage of primiparous women experience a
- Estimate GCS post head-trauma. E - Response to pai
- During scoliosis surgery with monitoring of somato
- During prolonged trendelenburg positioning there i
- A patient is having an electrophysiological study
- When do most patients with SAH rebleed?
- Acute visual loss after non-ocular surgery is most
- A 29 year old female undergoes craniotomy for post
- Which type of aortic dissection is typically manag
- Pulsus paradoxus in constrictive pericarditis:
- A male patient has a haemoglobin of 8g/dL and reti
- Inverted P waves in lead II may be caused by?
- With regard to Digoxin toxicity which of the follo
- cTnI remains elevated for up to?
- Abnormal Q waves are NOT a feature of the ECG in
- 75 year old with non-valvular AF usually on warfar
- At what valve area do you begin to get symptoms, a
- All of the following may be associated with ulcera
- The presence of small bubbles of air in an invasiv
- Photograph of an Arndt endobronchial blocker. Orif
- A Full Size C oxygen cylinder has pressure downreg
- White cylinder with grey shoulder?
- You are doing an awake fibreoptic intubation and h
- Which is NOT a disadvantage of drawover vaporiser
- Desflurane vaporiser, heated because of
- 75 year old male with normal renal function for an
- What antibiotics are required for bacterial endoca
- Endocarditis prophylaxis is appropriate in?
- The most commonly reported cause of awareness duri
- Indicator in sodalime?
- Most common cause of mortality post transfusion?
- Emergency caesarean section for foetal distress (a
- Apnoeic oxygenation in obese patient can be increa
- Best single predictor of difficult intubation in o
- Half-life of mast cell tryptase?
- A 62 year old man has chronic renal failure. You n
- Iron deficiency
- A 60 year old man 24 hours post CABG is confused,
- After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, the FR
- Advantages of off-pump CABG over on-pump CABG
- When intubating over a bougie / awake fibreoptic,
- When stimulating the ulnar nerve with a nerve stim
- The commonest initial presenting feature in anaphy
- The percentage of the population which is heterozy
- To achieve maximum anaesthesia with minimal risk o
- The most frequently reported clinical sign in mali
- Preoperative assessment shows a malampati (ML) sco
- Blunt liver trauma can be treated non surgically i
- Pre eclamptic patient post LSCS continue on Mg inf
- Respiratory function in quadriplegics is improved
- A patient with severe COPD on home oxygen is havin
- The carotid sinus derives its nerve supply from th
- What nerve supplies sensation to the larynx above
- A nulliparous woman in labour for 8 hours with epi
- In the management of torsades de pointes (polymorp
- Best indicator of return function of laryngeal mus
- Indicates autonomic neuropathy except
- Most likely change on CTG with anaesthesia for non
- What do C6/7 motor function do
- Baby with Tracheo-oesophageal fistula found by bub
- Suxamethonium dosage higher in neonates compare to
- The cause of hypoxia in one lung ventilation
- A patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to
- Tracheo-oesophageal Fistula (TOF)
- Young pregnant patient with moderate mitral stenos
- Systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) is calcu
- An 18 yo with Fontan circulation undergoing explor
- Which patients do not get pulmonary hypertension
- Pregnant woman presents with narrow complex tachyc
- The financial and economic collapse of 1857 increa
- In the Dred Scott decision, the Supreme Court
- The election of 1856 was most noteworthy for
- Congressman Preston Brooks beat Senator Charles Su
- The fanatical abolitionist John Brown made his fir
- As submitted to Congress, the Lecompton Constituti
- Southerners were especially enraged by abolitionis
- Hinton R. Helper's The Impending Crisis of the Sou
- Harriet Beecher Stowe's Uncle Tom's Cabin
- Northerners especially resented Douglas's Kansas-N
- The Gadsden Purchase was fundamentally designed to
- The primary goal of the Treaty of Kanagawa , which
- Southerners seeking to expand the territory of sla
- The conflict over slavery following the election o
- The most significant effect of the Fugitive Slave
- The greatest winner in the Compromise of 1850 was
- Under the terms of the Compromise of 1850
- It appeared that the Compromise of 1850 would fail
- Senator Daniel Webster's fundamental view regardin
- Southerners hated the Underground Railroad and dem
- The proposed direct admission of California into t
- Rapid formation of an effective state government i
- In the election of 1848, the response of the Whig
- Popular sovereignty was the idea that
- The transcendentalist writers such as Emerson, Tho
- The Knickerbocker Group of American writers includ
- Two leading female imaginative writers who added l
- Many of the American utopian experiments of the ea
- Besides the hostility and ridicule it suffered fro
- One primary cause of women's subordination in nine
- Reformer Dorothea Dix worked for the cause of
- The major promoter of an effective tax-supported s
- Besides their practice of polygamy, the Mormons ar
- The major effect of the growing slavery controvers
- The term Burned-Over District refers to
- Evangelical preachers like Charles Grandison Finne
- Which of the following was not characteristic of t
- Two denominations that became the dominant faiths
- The tendency toward rationalism and indifference i
- By the 1850s, most northerners could be described
- The northern political leader who successfully def
- The last open debate inside the South regarding pr
- Frederick Douglass and some other black and white
- Most of the early abolitionists were motivated by
- The African American family under slavery was
- Most slave owners treated their slaves as
- One major consequence of the outlawing of the inte
- The condition of the 500,000 or so free blacks was
- The only group of white southerners who hated both
- Even though they owned no slaves, most southern wh
- Most southern slave owners held
- Which of the following was not characteristic of t
- A large portion of the profits from the South's co
- By 1840, cotton had become central to the whole Am
- The real significance of William Henry Harrison's
- Prominent leaders of the Whig party included
- The Panic of 1837 and the subsequent severe depres
- In the immediate aftermath of the successful Texas
- Among the political innovations that first appeare
- One important result of President Jackson's destru
- Jackson's veto of the Bank of the United States re
- In promoting his policy of Indian removal, Preside
- Some southeastern Indian tribes like the Cherokees
- Under the surface of the South's strong opposition
- Andrew Jackson's fundamental approach during the S
- One political development that demonstrated the po
- Andrew Jackson's strong appeal to the common peopl
- Which of the following was not among the factors t
- The Jacksonian charge that John Quincy Adams won t
- The immediate effect of the Monroe Doctrine at the
- As proclaimed by Monroe in his message of 1823, th
- The original impetus for declaring the Monroe Doct
- Andrew Jackson's invasion of Florida led to perman
- One of the key components of the sectional Missour
- In the case of Dartmouth College v. Woodward, John
- Besides admitting Missouri as a slave state and Ma
- The new nationalistic feeling right after the War
- The Era of Good Feelings was sharply disrupted by
- One significant international consequence of the W
- One significant domestic consequence of the War of
- The terms of the Treaty of Ghent ending the War of
- Even though the victory in the Battle of New Orlea
- Two prominent American military heroes during the
- The greatest American military successes of the Wa
- The Federalists essentially believed that
- Thomas Jefferson and the Republican Party essentia
- The United States became involved in an undeclared
- George Washington's successor, John Adams, was pol
- In the 1790s, the powerful Miami Indians led by Li
- President Washington's foreign policy rested on th
- Regarding the French Revolution, most Jeffersonian
- The Whiskey Rebellion proved to be most significan
- The first American political parties developed pri
- Hamilton's first financial policies were intended
- The Ninth and Tenth Amendments partly reversed the
- The Bill of Rights is the name given to provisions
- The influential Founder and member of Congress who
- A key addition to the new federal government that
- The crucial Federalist successes in the fight for
- Anti-federalists generally found their greatest su
- Which one of the following combinations cannot pro
- What is the pH of a solution containing aqueous am
- What is the pH of a solution that is 0.30 M in ani
- What is the pH of a solution that is 0.080 M in aq
- What is the [H3O+] of a solution that is 0.010 M i
- A solution that is 0.20 M in NH3 is also 0.30 M in
- What is the pH of an aqueous solution containing C
- A solution is made by combining 500 mL of 0.10 M H
- Calculate the pH of 500. mL of 0.100 M acetic acid
- What is the pH of a 0.22 M HOCN solution containin
- What is the pH of a solution that is 0.20 M in HCN
- What is the pH of a solution which is 0.0400 M in
- Calculate the pH of a solution that is 0.15 M in H
- Calculate the pH of a solution that is 0.20 M in s
- Calculate the [H3O+] of a solution that is 0.20 M
- What is the [H3O+] of a solution that is 0.0100 M
- The pH of a 0.03 M formic acid (HCOOH) solution is
- When a solution of weak electrolyte is altered by
- A(n) ____ solution contains a conjugate acid-base
- At 0.50 atm and 60K, F2 is a:
- What is the normal boiling point temperature of F2
- The densest phase of F2 is a
- What is the densest phase for nitrogen?
- At what temperature and pressure do the three phas
- What is the normal melting point for nitrogen?
- An unknown substance was found to have a melting p
- An unknown white solid was found to have a melting
- Both solid and liquid CCl4 are molecular in nature
- When X-rays with ? = 193.7 pm are used, the second
- Shown below is the unit cell for sodium chloride.
- As iron is heated to 1181K, it adopts one type of
- The metal niobium crystallizes in a body-centered
- A certain compound is formed by directional covale
- You have a white, crystalline solid which melts at
- You have a white, crystalline solid which has a me
- The electron sea model explains ______.
- Identify the line segment on the above diagram whe
- Identify the line segment on the diagram below whe
- Identify the line segment on the diagram below whe
- Calculate the amount of energy required to melt a
- The vapor pressure of liquid iron is 400mmHg at 28
- Choose the statement which best explains why the b
- Which of the above would you predict to have the h
- What is the normal boiling point of methanol?
- Which of the compounds above has the strongest int
- At 10.0oC, the vapor pressure of nitric acid is 26
- How much energy is given off when 55.0g of steam a
- Which of the following compounds has a boiling poi
- Which of the following compounds would have the hi
- What is the strongest type of interparticle force
- What is the simplest formula of the compound repre
- The metal potassium crystallizes in a body-centere
- Strontium crystallizes in a face-centered cubic la
- The metal lead crystallizes in a face-centered cub
- The space-filling representation provided below is
- Which of the following statements concerning the a
- How much heat is released at constant pressure if
- Which of the following involves a change in temper
- Elements that have their highest energy electrons
- The electrical conductivity of a metal ____ with i
- Which one of the following elements is considered
- Which one of the following elements is considered
- The conduction band of magnesium is thought to res
- In the metallic bonding of Na, the conduction band
- Consider the metallic bonding in lithium. The inte
- An unknown metal crystallized in the hexagonal clo
- In ideal close-packed structures of metallic solid
- The density of palladium is 12.0 g/cm3. The unit c
- Metallic calcium crystallized in a face-centered c
- Metallic calcium crystallized in a face-centered c
- What is the coordination number for each sphere (m
- For crystal structures that contain only one kind
- For crystal structures that contain only one kind
- Which of the following solids could be described i
- Arrange the following in order of increasing melti
- Arrange the following in order of increasing melti
- Arrange the following in order of increasing melti
- Arrange the following ionic compounds in order of
- Which of the following solid compounds has the hig
- Which of the following compounds would be expected
- Which one of the following melts at the lowest tem
- Substances have properties that are related to the
- Substances have properties that are related to the
- Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly ma
- Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly ma
- Which one of the following substances is incorrect
- Which of the following in the solid state would be
- Which of the following, in the solid state, would
- Which one of the following crystallizes in a metal
- Which one of the following is a molecular solid?
- Which one of the following is classified as a cova
- Which type of solid is expected for Ga?
- Which type of solid is expected for SO2?
- Which one of the following is a metallic solid?
- Which one of the following is an ionic solid?
- Which one of the following is a covalent solid?
- Which one of the following is not a general proper
- Which one of the following statements is not appli
- Which one of the following statements is not appli
- Which one of the following statements is not appli
- The ability of a central bank to set monetary poli
- Instrument independence is the ability of ________
- Subject to the approval of the Board of Governors,
- The Federal Open Market Committee's "balance of ri
- The Federal Open Market Committee's "balance of ri
- The teal book is the Fed research document contain
- The research document given to the Federal Open Ma
- Although neither ________ nor the ________ are off
- Each Fed bank president attends FOMC meetings; alt
- The majority of members of the Federal Open Market
- The Federal Open Market Committee consists of the
- The Federal Reserve entity that makes decisions re
- The Federal Open Market Committee usually meets __
- Which of the followings is not a current duty of t
- Which of the followings is a duty of the Board of
- Which of the followings is a duty of the Board of
- While the discount rate is "established" by the re
- Each governor on the Board of Governors can serve
- The Chairman of the Board of Governors is chosen f
- Members of the Board of Governors are
- There are ________ members of the Board of Governo
- The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monet
- Banks subject to reserve requirements set by the F
- The Fed's support of the Depository Institutions D
- Prior to 1980, member banks left the Federal Reser
- Of all commercial banks, about ________ percent be
- All ________ are required to be members of the Fed
- Which of the following functions is not performed
- An important function of the regional Federal Rese
- The president from which Federal Reserve Bank alwa
- The Federal Reserve Bank of ________ plays a speci
- Member commercial banks have purchased stock in th
- The nine directors of the Federal Reserve Banks ar
- Each Federal Reserve bank has nine directors. Of t
- The Federal Reserve Banks are ________ institution
- The three largest Federal Reserve banks (New York,
- Which of the following is an entity of the Federal
- Which of the following is NOT an entity of the Fed
- What makes the Federal Reserve so unique compared
- The financial panic of 1907 resulted in such wides
- The public's fear of centralized power and distrus
- The Second Bank of the United States
- The First Bank of the United States
- The M2 money supply is represented by
- In the model of the money supply process for M2, t
- The increase in the currency ratio during World Wa
- The factor accounting for the steepest rise in the
- The steepest increase in the currency ratio since
- The increase in the availability of ATM's has caus
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, an increase in weal
- Part of the increase in currency holdings in the 1
- Factors causing an increase in currency holdings i
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, a decrease in the c
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- The M2 money multiplier is
- The equation that represents M2 in the model of th
- Suppose the Bank of China permanently decreases it
- Suppose, while cleaning out its closets, a worker
- An increase in which of the following leads to a d
- U.S. Treasury deposits at the Fed are ________ for
- An increase in U.S. Treasury deposits at the Fed r
- An increase in Treasury deposits at the Fed causes
- A Fed purchase of gold, SDRs, a deposit denominate
- When the Fed purchases artwork to decorate the con
- Which of the following are not liabilities on the
- Which of the following are not assets on the Fed's
- When the Treasury acquires gold or SDRs, it issues
- Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are issued to govern
- The volume of loans that the Fed makes to banks is
- Fed's holdings of securities consist primarily of
- The two most important categories of assets on the
- Which is the most important category of Fed assets
- During the 2007-2009 financial crisis the excess r
- During the 2007-2009 financial crisis the currency
- In the early 1930s, the currency ratio rose, as di
- During the bank panics of the Great Depression the
- During the bank panics of the Great Depression the
- Recognizing the distinction between borrowed reser
- The money multiplier is
- The money supply is ________ related to expected d
- The excess reserves ratio is ________ related to e
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, a decrease in the e
- Everything else held constant, a decrease in the c
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, a decrease in the c
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, a decrease in the r
- Everything else held constant, an increase in the
- Everything else held constant, a decrease in the r
- The formula for the M1 money multiplier is
- When the Federal Reserve extends a discount loan t
- All else the same, when the Fed calls in a $100 di
- When the Fed extends a $100 discount loan to the F
- When a member of the nonbank public deposits curre
- When a member of the nonbank public withdraws curr
- For which of the following is the change in reserv
- If a member of the nonbank public purchases a gove
- If a member of the nonbank public sells a governme
- When an individual sells a $100 bond to the Fed, s
- The effect of an open market purchase on reserves
- The effect of an open market purchase on reserves
- If a person selling bonds to the Fed cashes the Fe
- When the Fed sells $100 worth of bonds to First Na
- When the Fed buys $100 worth of bonds from First N
- When the Federal Reserve sells a government bond t
- When the Federal Reserve purchases a government bo
- Purchases and sales of government securities by th
- High-powered money minus currency in circulation e
- High-powered money minus reserves equals
- The monetary base minus reserves equals
- The monetary base minus currency in circulation eq
- When banks borrow money from the Federal Reserve,
- The interest rate the Fed charges banks borrowing
- The percentage of deposits that banks must hold in
- The amount of deposits that banks must hold in res
- Total Reserves minus vault cash equals
- Excess reserves are equal to
- Total reserves are the sum of ________ and _______
- Reserves are equal to the sum of
- Total reserves minus bank deposits with the Fed eq
- The monetary base consists of
- The sum of the Fed's monetary liabilities and the
- Both ________ and ________ are monetary liabilitie
- The monetary liabilities of the Federal Reserve in
- Both ________ and ________ are Federal Reserve ass
- Of the three players in the money supply process,
- The three players in the money supply process incl
- Individuals that lend funds to a bank by opening a
- The government agency that oversees the banking sy
- The Federal Reserve ________ pay interest on reser
- The equivalent to the Federal Reserve's discount r
- When the European System of Central Banks uses lon
- When the European System of Central Banks uses mai
- The European System of Central Banks signals the s
- The purpose of the commitment by the Fed to keep t
- Which of the following monetary policy tools is mo
- From before the financial crisis began in Septembe
- From before the financial crisis began in Septembe
- When the Fed wants to raise interest rates after b
- The policy tool of changing reserve requirements i
- Funds held in ________ are subject to reserve requ
- Since 1980, ________ are subject to reserve requir
- The Federal Reserve has had the authority to vary
- A decrease in ________ increases the money supply
- An increase in ________ reduces the money supply s
- The most important advantage of discount policy is
- The Fed's lender-of-last-resort function
- The facility that was created in December of 2007
- A financial panic was averted in October 1987 foll
- Much of the credit for prevention of a financial m
- At its inception, the Federal Reserve was intended
- The Fed is considering eliminating
- The interest rate on seasonal credit equals
- The interest rate for primary credit is usually se
- The interest rate on secondary credit is set _____
- The discount rate refers to the interest rate on
- The Fed prefers that so that
- The discount rate is kept ________ the federal fun
- The discount rate is kept ________ the federal fun
- The Fed's discount lending is of three types: ____
- The most common type of discount lending, ________
- The most common type of discount lending that the
- Suppose on any given day there is an excess demand
- The Federal Reserve will engage in a matched sale-
- The Fed can offset the effects of an increase in f
- If the Fed wants to temporarily inject reserves in
- The Federal Reserve will engage in a repurchase ag
- If the banking system has a large amount of reserv
- If the Fed expects currency holdings to fall, it c
- If the Fed expects currency holdings to rise, it c
- If Treasury deposits at the Fed are predicted to _
- If Treasury deposits at the Fed are predicted to f
- If Treasury deposits at the Fed are predicted to _
- If Treasury deposits at the Fed are predicted to i
- If float is predicted to increase because of bad w
- When good weather speeds the check-clearing proces
- When bad storms slow the check-clearing process, f
- When good weather speeds the check-clearing proces
- When bad storms slow the check-clearing process, f
- If float is predicted to decrease because of unsea
- The actual execution of open market operations is
- The Federal Open Market Committee makes the Fed's
- Open market operations intended to offset movement
- There are two types of open market operations: ___
- The two types of open market operations are
- Everything else held constant, in the market for r
- Everything else held constant, in the market for r
- Everything else held constant, in the market for r
- Everything else held constant, in the market for r
- Everything else held constant, in the market for r
- A monopolist with constant marginal costs faces a
- For a monopolist who faces a downward-sloping dema
- If the interest rate is 10%, a monopolist will cho
- The market for a good is in equilibrium when the g
- If there are constant returns to scale in a compet
- It is possible to have an industry in which all fi
- A competitive firm has a continuous marginal cost
- Mr. O Carr has the cost function c(y) =y^2 + 64 if
- A firm faces competitive markets both for its inpu
- The area under the marginal cost curve measures to
- If a competitive firm uses two inputs and has the
- The average variable cost curve must always be U-s
- A firm uses a single variable input x to produce o
- A competitive, cost-minimizing firm has the produc
- In the long-run, if there are increasing returns t
- A firm produces one output with one input and has
- If the value of the marginal product of factor x i
- If there is one input used in production and if th
- If the production function is f(x, y) = min(12x, 3
- The economist's distinction between the long run a
- If the demand curve is a linear function of price,
- If there is Cobb-Douglas utility, compensating and
- If preferences are homothetic, then the slope of t
- Fiery Demon is a rotgut whisky made in Kentucky. S
- The utility function U(x1, x2) = 2lnx1 + 3lnx2, re
- Angela's utility function is U(x1, x2) = (x1 + x2)
- With quasilinear preferences, the slope of indiffe
- If the elasticity of demand curve for buckwheat is
- If the demand function is q = 3m/p, where m is inc
- If there is a price increase for a good that Susan
- Consumer's surplus is another name for excess dema
- If preferences are homothetic and all prices doubl
- If preferences are quasilinear, then for very high
- Charlie's utility function is U(x,y) = xy^2. His m
- At a boundary optimum, a consumer's indifference c
- If Melody has more classical records than rock and
- Nancy's psychology teacher will giver her a course
- If preferences are transitive, more is always pref
- A decrease in income pivots the budget line around
- If all prices are doubled and money is left the sa
- An airline has exclusive landing rights at the loc
- A monopolistic receives a subsidy from the governm
- Imagine first a drug dealer working in a competiti
- A competitive firm uses two variable factors to pr
- The production function of a competitive firm is d
- The following relationship must hold between the a
- As assistant vice president in charge of productio
- A firm has a fixed costs of $2,000. Its short-run
- A competitive firm's production function is f (x,
- A profit-maximizing competitive firm uses just one
- A firm has a production function f (x, y) = 1.80(x
- Suppose that the production function is f (x, y) =
- At a large institution of higher learning, the dem
- Ambrose's brother Sebastian has a utility function
- Isabella's utility function is U (x, y) = 4 min{x,
- The inverse demand function for grapes is describe
- Reginald is fond of cigars. His utility function i
- Katie Kwasi's utility function is U (x1, x2) = 2(l
- Ms. Laura Mussel's preferences between gold and te
- Mary Granola consumes tomatoes and nectarines. Mar
- If there are only two goods, if more of good 1 is
- If we graph Mary Granola indifference curves with
- Ambrose has indifference curves represented by the
- In Problem 2, Ambrose has indifference curves with
- The curvature of an economy's production possibili
- Which of the following will cause an inward shift
- If prices are held above the equilibrium price:
- Without any restrictions in a perfectly competitiv
- When existing firms leave a perfectly competitive
- When positive economic profits exist in an industr
- The entry of new firms into a perfectly competitiv
- If price is greater than the average variable cost
- When two firms in a perfectly competitive market s
- A seller is willing to sell 5 units of a good at a
- Graphically, producer surplus is the:
- A firm should shut down in the short run if the pr
- If the price elasticity of supply of a good is 2,
- Willingness to pay:
- If quantity of milk is measured on the horizontal
- A change in the slope of a budget constraint indic
- An optimizing consumer makes her purchase decision
- John is a seller in an independent private‐values
- A risk‐neutral individual would:
- Which of the following is a means of eliminating t
- Which of the following phenomena shows that risk a
- ___ occurs when people smoke more after buying lif
- If you advertise and your rival advertises, you ea
- Which of the following conditions are necessary fo
- When firms in an industry are maximizing profits,
- In a competitive industry with identical firms, lo
- Suppose you read in an industry publication that t
- Monopolistic competition is characterized by
- A local telephone company charges $.10/min. based
- An industry consists of six firms with annual sale
- In perfect competition, which is not true?
- The long‐run is defined as
- If the cross‐price elasticity between good X & Y i
- You are the manager of a popular hat company. You
- Each week Bill buys exactly 7 bottles of cola rega
- When the own price elasticity of good X is ‐3.5 th
- A dictionary definition would be an example of
- Which one of the sins of memory probably helps us
- Remembering names is usually harder than rememberi
- Which part of long-term memory stores autobiograph
- When you get a new cat, you will note her unique m
- As you study the vocabulary in this book, which me
- An implicit memory may be activated by priming, an
- Which kind of forgetting is involved when the soci
- Which one of the following lists represents a conc
- A math problem calls for finding the area of a tri
- H.M.'s ______-memory was more profoundly affected
- Which of the following utterances illustrates over
- Because you watch a lot of violent videos, you thi
- Which of the following is not a characteristic tha
- Noam Chomsky has presented evidence supporting his
- Which one of the seven "sins" of memory is dispute
- Which one of the following statements best describ
- A person experience the TOT phenomenon is unable t
- In order to get material into permanent storage, i
- Which of the following are the three essential tas
- Which one of the following is Not an artificial co
- The sensory register for vision is called ______ m
- ___ are clusters of knowledge that provide general
- A guitarist uses ______ to recall how to play the
- An algorithm would not be the best strategy when t
- Usually about 500 people attend the annual exquisi
- A person who uses a drop of superglue to seal a pa
- In studies that were completed regarding students'
- Blocking refers to the situation in which competin
- Another term for eidetic imagery is
- The physical changes that are associated with memo
- Getting information out of memory is known as
- If you are unable to remember the name of your sec
- After the outcome is known, people often have dist
- The reason it may be difficult to remember how man
- The capacity of working memory is about ______ ite
- How long does sensory memory generally last?
- To remember the five Great Lakes, you might rememb
- A(n) ______ is a cognitive representation of a phy
- The fact that taste aversions ______ poses a probl
- If you were going to use Bandura's findings in dev
- Operant conditioning, in contrast with classical c
- Much of B.F. Skinner's early work was inspired by
- After having some bad barbecue pork in the cafeter
- The notion that learning produces physical changes
- Burt had never been afraid of spiders. but at camp
- Research regarding the learning styles have found
- A punisher ______ the probability of a response wh
- Which of the following would be most likely to be
- If you learned to fear electrical outlets after ge
- Just has cancer and is receiving chemotherapy at a
- Your family goes on a fishing trip for vacation. W
- Damage to neurons within the ______ that use the t
- A dog rattles a chain by the door to indicate that
- Insight learning involves
- You had an intense fear of high spaces and were as
- In deciding whether there is a fire in your classr
- Intermittent reinforcement is particularly effecti
- Negative punishment is sometimes referred to as __
- What was the objection by Watson and other behavio
- All of the following are related to our circadian
- An altered state of consciousness occurs when some
- Which of the following is not one of the functions
- Which of the following symptoms suggests the prese
- Suppose that you are working in a sleep laboratory
- Which of the following drugs would be most likely
- Psychology has verified that meditation can be use
- Which one of the following is a sleep disorder cha
- Which one of the following did Freud believe to be
- Which of the following groups of drugs have the op
- Consciousness changes in cycles that normally corr
- Which of the following statements about hypnosis i
- Psychoactive drugs usually create their effects by
- According to the activation-synthesis theory, drea
- Rapid eye movements are reliable behavioral signs
- Three major effects sought by users of ______ are
- Imaging techniques, such as MRI and PET scans, all
- Hypnosis is sometimes used by psychological resear
- Which statement is true about daydreaming?
- Suppose you wanted to sample the contents of preco
- According to cognitive neuroscience,
- Who objected most strenuously to defining psycholo
- Luisa agrees to look after her friend's' new baby
- Which one of the following is the only sense that
- Which one of the following is most commonly experi
- Research has shown that cultural factors can influ
- Although the markings in the ceiling tiles are of
- The Gestalt theory proposes that many of our perce
- What do all of these forms of sensation have in co
- The frequency theory best explains _______ sounds,
- The eyes have two distinct types of photoreceptors
- Which of the following is a process that adds mean
- Place theory argues that sounds of different frequ
- The tendency of adults from the mainland United St
- When two close friends are talking, other people m
- The most complex and highly developed sense for hu
- Place the following in the correct order concernin
- A person who has the most common form of color bli
- __ is/are heavily influenced by an individual's ex
- The visual cortex is located within the
- _____ is the treatment provided by a physician to
- A ______ is a document that specifies the amount t
- A ______ is an electronic document that lists pati
- Once locating claims and filters have been applied
- The document needed to enter charge transactions i
- A sworn in verbal testimony is called
- What type of person must function under direct sup
- Define the Geneva convention ?
- Out of the 4 categories of employees list which tw
- Name the 3 branches of government ?
- City curfews fall under what type of law ?
- When the constitution guarantees citizens the righ
- Defamation is what type of law ?
- Insurance fraud is what type of law ?
- What does private law consists of consists of ?
- What law does not deal with criminal law ?
- What law is large segment of criminal law ?
- What does federal jurisdiction refer to ?
- Name the care the requires a doctor to use ordinar
- Who is a defendant ?
- What are the first 10 amendments referred to as
- Define Constitution ?
- Define Diversity Jurisdiction ?
- Define Partnership ?
- Name the code of ethics that is a result of WWII w
- A business that is owned by a single individual wh
- Laws that are passed or regulated at a local level
- What government branch enforces law?
- What is an updated guideline for human experimenta
- A set of morals standards of right/wrong behaviors
- Name the code of ethics that states a standard car
- A type of practice that has shared investments and
- Define the controlled substance act ?
- What government branch enacts the laws ?
- What is known as pre-trial investigation ?
- What government branch interprets law ?
- Name the 4 categories of employees within a medica
- Name two types of liabilities ?
- What type of medical practice management is: a gro
- Name 5 code of ethics that a medical assistant wil
- What states the goals of a group in terms of how a
- Name 3 types of group practice ?
- What code of ethic law allows for care of all ?
- When can the administrative procedure act make dec
- What type of law is a conflict between the governm
- What type of consent is assumed based on fact or l
- The right of a court to hear and decide a case is
- Pertaining to court procedures who is the party th
- Pertaining to court procedures who is the party th
- How are drugs controlled ?
- Controlled substances are categorized into how man
- What does medical specialization enhance ?
- What branch of government enforces the law ?
- Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the
- Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the
- Private Law is also called ?
- Name four Criminal Liabilities ?
- T/F: registration and certification is voluntary,
- What are the four categories of employees? is lice
- What is bonding ?
- What is a joint venture?
- What is a major advantage of being part of a group
- What two type of reimbursement do group practice o
- What is a group practice?
- What kind of medical group consist of licensed ind
- What are some advantages vs. disadvantages of a pa
- What kind of practice is an association of two or
- What are some advantages vs. disadvantages to sole
- In medical practice management, a single practitio
- What 3 questions have been developed to aid in det
- Will medical specialization enhance the quality of
- What is another term for "moral issues and problem
- What does the Medical Assistant Code of Ethics str
- Why is the Nuremberg Code important in regards to
- What does the Geneva Convention entail?
- T/F: Professional code of ethics is established by
- What is the difference between Law and code of eth
- ACA Stands for
- HITECH Stands for
- MMDDCCYY format Stands for
- EDI Stands for
- EOB Stands for
- NPI Stands for
- HIT Stands for
- EHR Stands for
- HIPAA Stands for
- RA Stands for
- PMPs Stands for
- PHR Stands for
- The document explaining the results of the adjudic
- When a claim is received by a payer, it is reviewe
- The _____ regulates the protection of individually
- Default time slots in Office Hours is in
- The Office Hours calendar is used to _________.
- _____ is a report that traces who has accessed pat
- The _______ protects individually identifiable inf
- Security Standards consist of 3 categories _____
- Pre-registering patients is Step 1 in the Billing
- The _________ contains a number of rules, includin
- Step 3 of the Billing Cycle is ________. This cons
- What is a product sunset, and what is involved?
- What is a pre-requisite/co-requisite relationship
- What is a problem priority level and what is it us
- Explain the customer problem arrival curve in term
- What is the estimated effort field on the change r
- Who is responsible for the Support FAQ database?
- List three customer support functions that a custo
- Why do we need to have change control?
- Describe the steps involved when a customer proble
- What are the check-in and check-out activities in
- What is the storage and access model component of
- If the release number is part of the naming model
- What is configuration management and why is a nami
- What are the four major activities that make up co
- If the configuration management includes the traci
- Describe the major difference between the “view” a
- List three concerns you may need to look into prio
- What is a software system build process?
- Describe the notion of “promotion” of artifacts us
- Consider the diagram shown in figure 10.8 of the t
- Explain the difference between Black-box testing a
- What is the difference between performance testing
- Briefly explain two different ways to decide when
- List the four techniques discussed to perform veri
- Describe the steps involved in a formal inspection
- Describe the steps involved in a formal inspection
- Briefly explain the concept of static analysis and
- Explain how to start Black-box testing and discuss
- Discuss the difference in test cases using Equival
- In code inspection, what would you set as the cond
- Consider the simple case of testing 2 variables, X
- List two techniques you can use to perform validat
- Consider the diagram shown in figure 10.8 of the t
- Consider the diagram shown in figure 10.8 of the t
- You should choose longer names for local variables
- You should choose longer names for local variables
- List the four phases of the debugging process, as
- ___ is the act of transforming the detailed design
- A __ is a condition that your module requires in
- Name some of the refactorings that Fowler discuses
- __ is a change made to the internal structure of s
- List at a few desirable characteristics of a good
- List a few of the “code smells” Fowler provides as
- List a few of the types of code comments described
- The most important issues for maintaining a good c
- What are glue tokens and super glue tokens, and wh
- What is software cohesion?
- What is fan-in and fan-out, and what attribute do
- What is software coupling?
- What is the Law of Demeter attempting to achieve?
- What is McCabe’s cyclomatic complexity number a) a
- What are the two general characteristics of a desi
- List four out of the eight rules of user interface
- What are the levels of coupling?
- What are the six design measurements of C-K metric
- What is a program slice?
- What are the general cohesion and coupling goals w
- In contrast to general design, what is user interf
- What are the levels of cohesion?
- Explain how the Model-View-Controller architectura
- What is the difference between low fidelity protot
- Mention and describe three different views used in
- When we employ the technique of generalization in
- What does aggregation mean in OO? Give an example.
- Explain “Adding a course” from section 7.3.4 using
- What is the difference between data modeling and l
- Discuss Figure 7.26 with regard to the user’s inte
- List the four components of the GOMS model for use
- List two differences between the state transition
- List at least four items that are included in the
- What additional skills and knowledge help a requir
- What are the six main dimensions of requirements t
- What is the Viewpoint-Oriented Requirements Defini
- List and describe at a high level the steps involv
- List and describe three items that will need to be
- What are the three main items that must be planned
- List at least 3 of the fundamental principles of e
- According to the Crystal family of methodologies,
- List the 4 values listed in the agile software man
- List characteristics of agile methods.
- During eXtreme Programming planning, technical sta
- During eXtreme Programming planning, customers dec
- List a at least 3 of the problems that may arise w
- List 3 of the core values of eXtreme Programming
- List disadvantages of agile processes.
- In open source software, access to the source code
- List at least 3 of the advantages of agile process
- What are the 4 phases of Rational Unified Process?
- How many process areas, in total, are included in
- Discuss one advantage and one disadvantage of the
- What are the major concepts that drove the Rationa
- Give an example of your morning routine as a water
- In a Spiral model, what are the four quadrants?
- What is the goal of a software process model?
- What is an entry and exit criteria to a process?
- List all of the key processes addressed by SEI’s C
- (Advanced analysis) The equation for the demand cu
- When the price of a product falls, the purchasing
- When the price of a product rises, consumers shift
- The income and substitution effects account for:
- I. No manager is a leader. II. All leaders are exe
- Increased productivity necessary reflects greater
- Right triangle PQR is to be constructed in the xy
- That boy from the town was a __ in the sleepy vill
- (A) When the teacher eludes to different authors,
- Apparent lifelessness ___ dormant life.
- Tanya is older than Enc. Cliff is older than Tanya
- Five teams have to compete in a league, with every
- Which of the following are correct?
- Which of the following measures is likely to help
- Which of the following correct denotes to the Dema
- The Republic Day of India commemorates the date on
- __ has recently become the first Indian state to a
- The correct statement about Fundamental Rights are
- The ‘Single Directive’, which required government
- Transparency International on 27 January 2016 rele
- Bastille Day’
- India has no policy of declassification of public
- Bank holidays under Section 25 of the Negotiable I
- Which amongst the following is not term deposits i
- Who chairs the Joint Session of the two Houses of
- Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevent
- Consider a situation The Governor has sent a bill
- Shivnarine Chanderpaul who on 22 January 2016 anno
- Actress Kalpana who died on 25 January 2016 was fa
- Who has been conferred with the third edition of Y
- A bill is a ‘Money Bill’ or not will be decided by
- Transparency International on 27 January 2016 rele
- ar, cs, et, ?
- President Pranab Mukherjee on 26 January 2016 appr
- Panchayati Raj system is based on the principle of
- Union Government has recently launched Sahaj Schem
- Materials for rain proof coats and tents owe their
- Who recently took charge as the Permanent Represen
- Who among the following was the Chief Guest at 67t
- International Customs Day 2016 was observed across
- PAN number is required for all transactions above
- The ____ log file contains information and error m
- Log files are typically stored in the ____ directo
- You can restrict who can print to certain printers
- The __ option to the lpstat command causes a list
- By default, all print jobs have a priority of
- The lp command uses the ____ option to specify the
- To see a list of all printers on the system and th
- To send a print job to a printer, you must first u
- Processes that have encountered an error during ex
- The __ can be used to affect the process priority
- The ?? kill signal is the default kill signal used
- A value of 0 for a process priority indicates ?? p
- The init daemon has a PID of
- To create or edit a user cron table, you can use t
- The _ field in a cron table contains the absolute
- To display a list of at Job IDs, you can specify t
- Processes are started with a nice value of ____ by
- When there are multiple background processes execu
- After a background process has been started, it ca
- When killing a background job with the kill comman
- When you append a(n) _ to a command, the command i
- You can execute _ main types of Linux commands.
- The _ kill signal terminates a process by taking t
- The _ kill signal stops a process and then restart
- There are _ different kill signals that the kill c
- The _ option to the ps command displays all proces
- In the output of the ps -l command, the ____ colum
- To display an entire list of processes across all
- A system process that is not associated with a ter
- A(n) __ backup backs up only the data that has bee
- To view the contents of a file that was compressed
- Traditionally, ?? were used to back up data.
- To decompress files that have been compressed with
- If a compression utility compresses a file to 52%
- To remove a package from the system, you can use t
- The _ command looks for a Makefile and uses the in
- Most Linux distributions today use ____ as their p
- You can perform up to ____ different incremental b
- When using the cpio utility, the ____ option cause
- The _ option can be used with the tar command to e
- When used with the tar utility, the ____ option ca
- The filename extension given to files compressed w
- The _ option, when used with the gzip command, cau
- If no level of compression is specified, the gzip
- When used with the uncompress command, the ____ op
- When used with the compress command, the ____ opti
- The average compression ratio for gzip is _%.
- The _ command can be used to display the contents
- When using the compress utility, each file is rena
- The compression algorithm used by the compress uti
- Which decision construct, can give you an unlimite
- Users can create their own custom variables, calle
- A case construct must be ended by
- The _ command takes user input from stdin and plac
- Most commands that are run by the shell are run in
- The _ environment variable contains a list of dire
- The test statement _ would be used to determine if
- The _ escape sequence represents a form feed.
- If you have _ permission to a shell script, you ca
- The _ environment file is always executed immediat
- To see a list of all exported environment and user
- The _ command could be used to view the contents o
- To see a list of the environment variables and the
- A CPA who has been engaged to audit financial stat
- A CPA who has been engaged to audit financial stat
- An auditor has been asked to report on the balance
- Non-accounting data included in a long-form report
- An accountant may accept an engagement to apply ag
- Which of the following is not an element of examin
- Why do standards prohibit the general use of proje
- Debt compliance letters are ordinarily addressed t
- You are a CPA retained by the manager of a coopera
- The title of a review report issued for a public c
- When an accountant performs more than one level of
- Which of the following procedures is not included
- An accountant who reviews the financial statements
- Assurance provided by a review is substantially le
- Statements on Accounting and Review Services are i
- An agreed-upon procedures engagement is one in whi
- General use statements are prepared for use by ___
- Professional standards prohibit one of the followi
- __ are prospective financial statements that prese
- __ are prospective financial statements that prese
- A report on an examination is _______ as to the di
- Which of the following is not one of the general t
- Which of the following types of engagement reports
- Which of the following types of engagement reports
- Which of the following is not one of the types of
- Which of the following is not a standard contained
- Auditors frequently audit statements that were pre
- Reports on debt compliance and similar engagements
- The WebTrust service requires that a CPA update it
- The quarterly reports submitted to the SEC by the
- The Securities and Exchange Commission requires qu
- Which of the following services is performed under
- Evidence for a review engagement consists primaril
- Which of the following forms of review are permiss
- In which type of report would you read the followi
- Distribution of which of the following types of re
- Which of the following is not an area of emphasis
- Reports on agreed-upon procedures are intended to
- Specific attestation standards have been developed
- An auditor who conducts an examination in accordan
- For reviews, an accountant does not do which of th
- The statement that “Nothing came to our attention
- The distribution of which of the following types o
- Which of the following would not be included in a
- Which of the following meets the attestation stand
- A CPA firm can issue a compilation report:
- An examination results in a conclusion that is in
- Compilation reports may be of all but which of the
- Compilation reports may be of all but which of the
- A(n) __results in a conclusion that is in a positi
- Practitioners who perform reviews and compilations
- Because the same CPA firm does both the annual aud
- Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagement
- The auditor’s responsibility with respect to event
- The auditor’s responsibility with respect to event
- A client has a calendar year-end. Listed below are
- After an auditor has issued an audit report on a n
- An auditor’s decision concerning whether or not to
- Subsequent events affecting the realization of ass
- An auditor must obtain written client representati
- An auditor must obtain written client representati
- Elise-Greer, LLP is an affiliate of the audit clie
- A company guarantees the debt of an affiliate. Whi
- An attorney is responding to an independent audito
- Management furnishes the independent auditor with
- A CPA has received an attorney’s letter in which n
- Which of the following is not required to be commu
- Which of the following is not a reason why the aud
- The process of “final evidence accumulation” is al
- The auditor’s responsibility for “reviewing the su
- If the auditor concludes that there are contingent
- Why must audit documentation be reviewed?
- If the auditor determines that a subsequent event
- While there is no professional requirement to do s
- Which of the following material events occurring s
- Which of the following determines the sufficiency
- Which event that occurred after the end of the fis
- An auditor performs interim work at various times
- In connection with the annual audit, which of the
- As part of an audit, a CPA often requests a repres
- Which of the following is the most efficient audit
- Which of the following auditing procedures is ordi
- Which of the following would be a subsequent disco
- When a client will not permit inquiry of outside l
- Which of the following statements is correct?
- Which of the following audit procedures would most
- The auditor is responsible for communicating signi
- SAS No. 99 and SAS No. 54 require the auditor to c
- Which of the following is not one of the categorie
- Which of the following is not a purpose of the cli
- A client representation letter is:
- Refusal by a client to prepare and sign the repres
- If an auditor concludes there are contingent liabi
- Which of the following statements regarding the le
- SAS No. 59 requires auditors to evaluate whether t
- SAS No. 59 requires the auditor to evaluate whethe
- Which of the following is not a matter that is typ
- The audit procedures for the subsequent events rev
- The audit procedures for the subsequent events rev
- When should auditors generally assess a client’s a
- The process which requires the calculation of an i
- When auditors wish to evaluate a sample statistica
- When the auditor goes through a population and sel
- An auditor can increase the likelihood that a samp
- One cause of non-sampling risk is:
- One of the ways to eliminate non-sampling risk is
- To determine if a sample is truly representative,
- In practice, auditors __ know if a sample is truly
- When the auditor decides to select less than 100 p
- A sample in which the characteristics of the sampl
- Which one of the following would the auditor consi
- An auditor needs to determine whether all customer
- When designing substantive tests of transactions f
- A proof of cash is not useful in discovering diffe
- Which of the following would be the best protectio
- Cash receipts from sales on account have been misa
- Transaction-related audit objectives are essential
- Which one of the following is not an auditor’s con
- Proper separation of duties is useful to prevent v
- Generally, audit evidence gathered from the sales
- Smith Manufacturing Company’s accounts receivable
- At which point in an ordinary sales transaction wo
- Which of the following procedures would ordinarily
- The audit procedure referred to as proof of cash r
- tests for omitted transactions, while __ tests for
- It is important that sales be billed and recorded
- Pre-numbered documents will only be useful for con
- With respect to sales, pre-numbered documents are
- Which of the following is not a point at which the
- To determine that sales are accurately recorded, t
- In many audits of sales transactions, no substanti
- The auditor traces items from the source documents
- An effective procedure to test for unbilled shipme
- To test for recorded sales for which there were no
- Which one of the following statements is true? In
- The credit-granting function should be separated f
- One key internal control to prevent fictitious tra
- To prevent fraud, management should deny cash acce
- Management’s assertions for sales and collection a
- After the auditor has identified the key internal
- A document used to indicate authority to write an
- Who is generally responsible for opening receipts
- Proper auditing requires that an account receivabl
- Credit memos are normally issued for what purpose(
- When posting the sales journal, details of the jou
- The document used as the basis for recording sales
- For most firms, the function of indicating credit
- In which of the following will sales return and al
- An audit procedure that compares the name, amount,
- For the most part, the audit of the sales and coll
- The most important aspects of the billing function
- In many audits, no substantive tests of transactio
- Some companies have customers send payments direct
- The __is a contract between a carrier (e.g., a tru
- The process which postpones entries for the collec
- Which of the following documents is not commonly a
- When designing audit procedures, the direction of
- A document that initiates shipment of goods and in
- The document that supports reductions in accounts
- The document that accompanies the customer’s payme
- A document sent to each customer showing his or he
- A listing of amounts owed by customer which shows
- The total of the individual account balances in th
- Which of the following is not a business function
- Most companies recognize sales revenue when:
- At what point in the sales and collection cycle do
- The document used to indicate to the customer the
- A document prepared to initiate shipment of the go
- Before goods are shipped on account, a properly au
- What critical event must take place before goods c
- A __is a document that communicates the descriptio
- A __is a document that indicates a request for mer
- What event initiates a transaction in the sales an
- Which of the following is not one of the five clas
- Which of the following is not an account affected
- Which of the following ultimately determines the s
- Which of the following is not a valid basis for om
- An exception in a test of control indicates the _o
- Which of the following types of evidence is not av
- Procedures to obtain an understanding of internal
- Documentation is used in every type of test except
- Only __ involve physical examination and confirmat
- What type of test is used to more types of evidenc
- Which of the following is ordinarily designed to d
- The reliance placed on substantive tests in relati
- Which of the following is/are performed in an audi
- At what point in the audit are tests of details mo
- After finishing the review phase of the study and
- Which of the following tests form the basis for an
- Which of the following audit tests would be regard
- Tests of controls address each of the following qu
- When controls are deemed ineffective and assessed
- If the results of the tests of controls, substanti
- When an auditor believes that analytical procedure
- Auditors who test manual controls that rely on IT-
- Tests of details of balances focus on:
- Which of the following types of procedures will be
- Many auditors perform extensive analytical procedu
- An increased extent of tests of controls is most l
- Tests of controls are generally viewed as less exp
- You are reviewing sales to discover cutoff problem
- The understatement of sales and accounts receivabl
- If the auditor decides not to confirm accounts rec
- Confirmation of accounts receivable balances norma
- How might the auditor determine whether a client h
- An auditor should perform alternative procedures t
- The positive (as opposed to the negative) form of
- Which of the following most likely would be detect
- What are the possible disadvantages of evaluating
- For which of the following accounts is cutoff leas
- Generally accepted accounting principles require t
- When positive confirmations are used, auditing sta
- Which of the following procedures do most auditors
- The advantage of using the negative form of confir
- A positive confirmation is more reliable evidence
- The most important aspect of evaluating the client
- Cutoff misstatements can occur for:
- When do most companies record sales returns and al
- Which of the following audit procedures would not
- A customer mails and records a check to a client f
- If the client’s internal control for recording sal
- An auditor discovers that the client records sales
- Most tests of accounts receivable are based on wha
- If accounts receivable accounts with credit balanc
- Because of its central role in auditing of account
- When should auditors not perform alternative proce
- The most important test of details of balances to
- Most tests of accounts receivable and the allowanc
- The most important test of details of balances for
- Tests of details of balances are directed to:
- The extent of the testing of detail tie-in of an a
- The most important test of details of accounts rec
- Analytical procedures are substantive tests and, i
- likely to be performed first when doing tests of d
- For cash receipts, the occurrence transaction-rela
- For sales, the occurrence transaction-related audi
- A type of positive confirmation known as a blank c
- Communication addressed to the debtor requesting h
- Generally accepted accounting principles require t
- Cutoff misstatements occur:
- Cut-off misstatements occur when:
- Auditors are often concerned with three aspects of
- Testing the information on the aged trial balance
- A listing of the balances in the accounts receivab
- types of receivables would not deserve the special
- For most audits, inherent risk for accounts receiv
- Tests of which balance-related audit objective are
- balance-related audit objective evaluated in the a
- appropriate evidence to be obtained from tests of
- The two primary classes of transactions in the sal
- balance-related audit objective evaluated in the a
- Choose the best definition for the following phras
- Evaluate the following expression using the values
- Simplify the following expression. 2x - 2y + 5z -
- Natalie made a mistake in the following problem.
- Evaluate 15 − 4 + (7 − 5)2
- Evaluate 9 − 3 • 2 + 4
- Evaluate 62 ÷ (3 + 9)
- Evaluate 48 + 24 ÷ 8 – 22
- When drawing a firearm, you must take care to
- Safe concealed carry of a firearm is
- A safe location to store a firearm is
- Your finger should be off the trigger until
- You should not point a firearm at something unless
- Combination of 2 snehas____
- ritashould be used at the end of ___rithu
- Administer ghrita with salt for the treatment of
- Udarda is ____
- The essence of all the dhathus is known as
- Total number of combination of tastes will be
- Tri hima includes
- Haritaki ___nama shreshtam
- Sarva rasabyaso ___ karanam
- Anu taila tatho nasya tatho___daranam
- The ___row of teeth should be brushed first
- Brahma muhoortha uttishttastvastha rakshartham
- Adhyayana nisidha kala___
- Purana is the function of___ dathu
- Anuvasana matra should be___of the quantity of
- Achha pana kala___days from mrudu koshta person?
- Prakopa of Vata, pitta, kapha occurs in ___ ritus
- Vidagdhajeerna is due to
- Types of Nidra
- Worst among phala varga is
- Best among matsya varga is
- ___ comes under visishta mamsa varga
- Worst among Shuka dhanya is
- Worst among Shali dhanyais
- Best among Brihi dhanya is
- Best among Shuka danya
- Sukta (wine) is prepared by
- Phanitha is a product of
- Kilata is a preparation made by heating
- The contents of this type of file can be viewed in
- This removes an item at a specific index in a list
- This list method adds an item to the end of an exi
- This string method returns a copy of the string wi
- This function returns the length of a string.
- This is the last index in a string.