What is a ceiling?

What is a ceiling?



a. Height above ground (AGL)
b. Vertical Visibility (VV) into an obscuring phenomenon


What is sky coverage?

What is sky coverage?



Answer: The amount of sky covered by clouds, reported in eighths. Includes coverage at the lowest cloud layer plus the additional coverage present at all successively higher cloud layers.

What are the types of obscuring phenomena?

What are the types of obscuring phenomena?



a. Fog
b. Haze
c. Smoke
d. Rain and drizzle
e. Snow
f. Blowing snow, dust, or sand

What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?

What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?



Answer: Horizontal distance seen by looking down the runway from approach end.

How is visibility expressed?

How is visibility expressed?



a. Statute miles
b. Hundreds of feet
c. Meters

What are the requirements for icing?

What are the requirements for icing?



a. Visible moisture
b. Super-cooled water droplets
c. Free air temperature and aircraft's surface temperature below freezing

What are the characteristics of a squall line?

What are the characteristics of a squall line?



a. Line of severe thunderstorms
b. Forms 50-300 miles ahead of a cold front
c. Will sometimes form without a cold front
d. Contains severe hazards to aviation

What is an air mass?

What is an air mass?



Answer: A large body of air that has essentially uniform temperature and moisture conditions in a horizontal plane

What are the methods of lifting?

What are the methods of lifting?



a. Convergence
b. Frontal
c. Thermal
d. Orographic

Describe two types of igniters.

Describe two types of igniters.



Answer:

Annular gap - protrudes into burner can.
Constrained gap - outside can.

Name two types of starters.

Name two types of starters.



Answer: DC electrical and AIr Turbine.

What are the indications of the four types of abnormal starts?

What are the indications of the four types of abnormal starts?



Answer:

False start - ITT normal, RPM stabilizes below normal.
Wet start - fuel flows but no light off.
Hot start - ITT above normal.
Hung start - ITT above normal, RPM below normal.

What is the purpose of a starter?

What is the purpose of a starter?



Answer: To accelerate the engine until the turbine makes enough power to accelerate the engine on its own.

What does the oil temperature regulating valve do?

What does the oil temperature regulating valve do?



Answer: Directs the flow of return oil into the fuel-oil heat exchanger to allow heating of fuel to occur. When no heat is needed, the valve stays closed and redirects the oil directly to the oil tank.

What does a magnetic chip detector do?

What does a magnetic chip detector do?



Answer: Detects metal fragments in the scavenge oil path downstream of accessory gear box. Presence of metal chips indicate that gears in the accessory gear box are coming apart.

What is the purpose of an oil pump?

What is the purpose of an oil pump?



Answer: Supplies oil under pressure to the parts of the engine that require lubrication.

What do oil tanks provide?

What do oil tanks provide?



Answer: Tanks store system oil supply, provide space for foaming/expansion, and vent excess pressure

What is a squeeze film?

What is a squeeze film?



Answer: A very thin layer of lubricant that prevents metal-on-metal contact

Define viscosity.

Define viscosity.



Answer: A measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. For liquids, it is inversely related to temperature.

What are the time limits for rated thrust?

What are the time limits for rated thrust?



Answer:

Normal - no limit.
Military - 30 minutes.
Combat/afterburner no limit.

What supplies fuel to the afterburner?

What supplies fuel to the afterburner?



Answer: Afterburner FCU meters fuel received from the engine-driven fuel pump via the Transfer Valve in the main FCU.

What is the basic purpose of the pressurizing and dump valve?

What is the basic purpose of the pressurizing and dump valve?



Answer: To drain the combustion manifold upon engine shutdown and to adjust fuel flow during engine starts. It is closed when the engine starts.

What is the purpose of the fuel-oil heat exchanger?

What is the purpose of the fuel-oil heat exchanger?



Answer: Preheats metered fuel and removes ice crystals before they enter the manifold. It increases fuel's volatility.

What does the fuel flow gauge/fuel flow meter do?

What does the fuel flow gauge/fuel flow meter do?



Answer: Located between FCU and fuel-oil heat exchanger, it measures fuel flow rate from the FCU in pounds per hour.

What is the fuel pressure gauge and where is it located?

What is the fuel pressure gauge and where is it located?



Answer: The fuel pressure gauge is a pressure sensor at the outlet of the boost pump. A drop in pressure may indicate a failed boost pump or an absence of fuel which could lead to cavitation.

What is a boost pump and where is it located?

What is a boost pump and where is it located?



Answer: An electric pump submerged in the fuel tank that ensures an adequate supply of vapor free fuel to the engine-driven fuel pump.

What are the flash points for JP-5 and JP-8?

What are the flash points for JP-5 and JP-8?



Answer: JP-5 Flash point: 140 degrees Fahrenheit. JP-5 is used aboard ship because of its higher flash point.
JP-8 Flash point: 100 degrees Fahrenheit.

What is a flash point?

What is a flash point?



Answer: The lowest temperature that allows for fuel-air mixture to form that ignites with momentary flame application.

What is an electrical distribution network? What are the types?

What is an electrical distribution network? What are the types?



Answer: A bus is a common distribution point for electricity. 4 types: Essential - safety of flight. Primary - mission related. Secondary or monitor - convenience circuits. Starter - starts the engine.

What are sources of DC power?

What are sources of DC power?



Answer: Battery, transformer-rectifier, DC generator.

What is a transformer-rectifier?

What is a transformer-rectifier?



Answer: An electrical device that transforms AC to DC.

What is an inverter?

What is an inverter?



Answer: An electromechanical device that transforms DC to AC.

What is a constant speed drive? What is it's purpose?

What is a constant speed drive? What is it's purpose?



Answer: A hydro-mechanical linkage between the engine and the generator. It ensures a constant RPM input to generator regardless of engine RPM.

What is an actuating cylinder?

What is an actuating cylinder?



Answer: Converts fluid under pressure into linear or reciprocating mechanical motion (foot stomp).

What do hydraulic fuses do?

What do hydraulic fuses do?



Answer: Hydraulic fuses are safety devices that detect ruptures, failed fittings, or other leak producing failures/damage. They prevent loss of fluid while allowing the rest of the system to remain in operation.

What does a check valve do?

What does a check valve do?



Answer: Allows one-way flow in a hydraulic system. On engine shutdown, works with accumulator to maintain system pressure (foot stomp)

What is the purpose of an accumulator?

What is the purpose of an accumulator?



Answer: Shock absorber for pressure surges in the system, and can supply pressure for one-time emergency use.

Name 2 pump types and their subunits.

Name 2 pump types and their subunits.



Answer: Hand pumps - emergency systems. Power pumps - mechanically or electrically powered at about 3,000 psi. Two types of power pumps: variable displacement, which regulates volume delivery in accordance with system demands, and constant displacement, which delivers constant fluid output for any rpm. Constant displacement pumps require a pressure regulator or unloader valve.

What does the hydraulic reservoir do?

What does the hydraulic reservoir do?



Answer: Serves as storage for hydraulic fluid. Overflow basin for excess fluid forced out of system by thermal expansion. Allows air bubbles to be purged, and separates some foreign matter from the system.

What is Pascal's Law?

What is Pascal's Law?



Answer: Pressure applied to a confined liquid is transmitted equally in all directions without loss of pressure and acts with equal force on equal surfaces.

What is the purpose of hydraulics?

What is the purpose of hydraulics?



Answer: To multiply force and to provide extra power and a mechanical advantage in various components .

What is the torque meter assembly?

What is the torque meter assembly?



Answer: The shaft that connects the gas generator to the Reduction gear box. Two parts: Torque shaft - inner, coupled to the compressor (or free power turbine), experiences torsional load. Reference shaft - outer, rigidly connected only at one end, doesn't carry a load. The difference in twisting between the torque shaft and reference shaft is used to measure torque.

How does a gas generator turn a propeller?

How does a gas generator turn a propeller?



Answer: With a reduction gear box (RGB) that converts high RPM low torque from the gas generator into low RPM high torque required from propeller operation.

How much thrust does a turboprop produce?

How much thrust does a turboprop produce?



Answer: 90% thrust from prop and 10% thrust from exhaust. Thrust is produced by a smaller amount of acceleration to a large mass of air.

Why are fans inefficient at high altitudes?

Why are fans inefficient at high altitudes?



Answer: Lower density at high altitudes means the fan is not accelerating as much air (loss of thrust)

Why are turbofans more fuel efficient?

Why are turbofans more fuel efficient?



Answer: Bypass air means less air goes through the gas generator, thus less fuel is added to the air to burn.

How does a jet produce thrust?

How does a jet produce thrust?



Answer: By highly accelerating a small mass of air through the engine.

How do you make a turbojet engine?

How do you make a turbojet engine?



Answer: Add an inlet and exhaust section to the basic gas generator

How should the pilot fly to avoid compressor stalls?

How should the pilot fly to avoid compressor stalls?



Answer: Avoid abrupt PCL changes and rapid attitude changes. Fly no less than airspeed minimums at all times.

What are the indications of a compressor stall?

What are the indications of a compressor stall?



Answer: Mild pulsations, loud noises/bangs, vibrations. RPM decay, and/or ITT rises without change in PCL, torquemeter wavers.

How do you get relative wind entering a gas generator?

How do you get relative wind entering a gas generator?



Answer: Components of relative wind are compressor RPM and inlet airflow vectors. Decreasing inlet air component or increasing RPM component increases AOA of the compressor blades.

What are the components of the afterburner and what do they do?

What are the components of the afterburner and what do they do?



Answer: Four components: Spray bars, Flame holders, Screech liner, and Variable Exhaust Nozzle. Spray bars inject fuel into the afterburner; flame holders create turbulent eddies to mix fuel and air. The Screech liner is a shock absorber that prevents vibrations and turbulence, and the variable exhaust nozzle increases air's exit velocity.

What is the purpose of exhaust?

What is the purpose of exhaust?



Answer: To direct the flow of hot gases rearward to cause a high exit velocity to the gases while preventing turbulence.

What is creep? What method is used to prevent it?

What is creep? What method is used to prevent it?



Answer: Creep is deformation of turbine blades due to overheating. It is accounted for by the "Fir Tree" attachment method.

What does the turbine do and how is its energy distributed?

What does the turbine do and how is its energy distributed?



Answer: 75% of energy produced by the turbine drives the compressor and accessories. The remaining 25% of energy produced is used for thrust.

What are some disadvantages of a can combustion chamber?

What are some disadvantages of a can combustion chamber?



Answer: Disadvantages: Poor use of space in chamber, greater pressure loss, and uneven heating of the turbine; failure of one can lead to turbine damage due to cold spots.

What happens with air entering the combustion chamber/burner?

What happens with air entering the combustion chamber/burner?



Answer: 25% of air is primary air, and is mixed with fuel for combustion. 75% of air is secondary air, and flows around the chamber for cooling, flame control, and to be available for afterburners.

Why is a dual-spool compressor design used?

Why is a dual-spool compressor design used?



Answer: Allows for greater pressure buildup, is easier to start, and provides compressor stability which helps prevent compressor stalls.

Describe a dual-spool axial flow compressor.

Describe a dual-spool axial flow compressor.



Answer: The compressor is divided into two independent rotor spools, each driven by their own turbine and drive shaft. Order from forward to act is low pressure compressor, high pressure compressor, high pressure turbine, low pressure turbine.

What is the purpose of the compressor?

What is the purpose of the compressor?



Answer: To provide high pressure air free of turbulence to send to the burners for max efficiency. As air travels through the compressor, it decreases velocity and increases pressure and temperature.

What type of inlet is designed for aircraft operation in both subsonic and supersonic flight regimes? How does it work?

What type of inlet is designed for aircraft operation in both subsonic and supersonic flight regimes? How does it work?



Answer: The Variable Geometry Inlet Duct uses mechanical devices such as wedges, ramps, or cones to automatically (no pilot input required) change inlet shape as aircraft speed varies between subsonic and supersonic.

What are some factors that improve thrust?

What are some factors that improve thrust?



Answer: High density, high pressure, low altitude, low temperature, ram effect, and high engine RPM.

What is net thrust?

What is net thrust?



Answer: Net thrust is thrust that corrects for the effect of inlet airflow velocity.

What is gross thrust?

What is gross thrust?



Answer: Gross thrust is the measurement of thrust due solely to velocity of exhaust gases; the engine must be stationary on the ground and requires standard day conditions.

Describe what a diffuser always does.

Describe what a diffuser always does.



Answer: A diffuser always increases pressure and decreases velocity.

Describe what a nozzle always does.

Describe what a nozzle always does.



Answer: A nozzle always increases velocity and decreases pressure.

What does Bernoulli's Theorem state?

What does Bernoulli's Theorem state?



Answer: As any incompressible fluid passes through a convergent opening, it's velocity increases and pressure decreases.

What happens to Total Pressure as Pressure and Velocity vary in a closed system?

What happens to Total Pressure as Pressure and Velocity vary in a closed system?



Answer: Total Pressure stays constant (Total pressure is the sum of Pressure and Velocity; in a closed system, if pressure increases, velocity must decrease to keep Total Pressure constant and vice versa)

What is dynamic pressure?

What is dynamic pressure?



Answer: The Kinetic Energy of fluid molecules in motion. In engines, Dynamic Pressure "equals" Velocity

A retailer decides to reduce the price of a sport coat that normally costs $98. The reduction in price is $3. The storeowner believes that the reduction will catch the eye of the value shopper. If the sport coat does not sell, the retailer might wish to consider which of the following before making another price change?

A retailer decides to reduce the price of a sport coat that normally costs $98. The reduction in price is $3. The storeowner believes that the reduction will catch the eye of the value shopper. If the sport coat does not sell, the retailer might wish to consider which of the following before making another price change?


A) subliminal perception
B) the figure-ground principle
C) the golden triangle
D) Weber's law

Answer: D

Mary Nabholz travels the same way to work every day. She notices advertisements in store windows when the ads first go up. However, after a few days, Mary no longer pays any attention to these ads because they have become familiar. Which of the following personal selection factors is affecting Mary Nabholz's response to the ads?

Mary Nabholz travels the same way to work every day. She notices advertisements in store windows when the ads first go up. However, after a few days, Mary no longer pays any attention to these ads because they have become familiar. Which of the following personal selection factors is affecting Mary Nabholz's response to the ads?


A) perceptual vigilance
B) perceptual defense
C) contrast
D) adaptation

Answer: D

A billboard is positioned beside a busy highway. However, the merchant that has purchased the billboard complains that no response is being generated by his advertising message. Upon closer inspection, the billboard company determines that the typeface used is too small to be effectively read by a motorist going 60+ mph on the highway. Which of the following sensory thresholds would be most appropriate to explain the failure of this advertisement to connect with motorists?

A billboard is positioned beside a busy highway. However, the merchant that has purchased the billboard complains that no response is being generated by his advertising message. Upon closer inspection, the billboard company determines that the typeface used is too small to be effectively read by a motorist going 60+ mph on the highway. Which of the following sensory thresholds would be most appropriate to explain the failure of this advertisement to connect with motorists?


A) the intensity threshold
B) the differential threshold
C) the absolute threshold
D) the relative threshold

Answer: C

Jason and Mark were talking in class, but so was everyone else. As they continued to discuss their day's adventures, it suddenly became clear to them that the teacher was staring at them. They didn't realize that the class had been called to order and what was once only one conversation among many was now disruptive. Jason apologized quickly, and the teacher resumed her normal activities. This is a good example of how a consumer's ability to detect a difference between two stimuli is ________.

Jason and Mark were talking in class, but so was everyone else. As they continued to discuss their day's adventures, it suddenly became clear to them that the teacher was staring at them. They didn't realize that the class had been called to order and what was once only one conversation among many was now disruptive. Jason apologized quickly, and the teacher resumed her normal activities. This is a good example of how a consumer's ability to detect a difference between two stimuli is ________.


A) absolute
B) negligible
C) relative
D) embedded

Answer: C

A common practice among advertisers is to create new relationships between objects and interpretants by inventing new connections between products and benefits. A classic example of this was equating Marlboro cigarettes with the American frontier spirit. Which of the following terms best describes this practice?

A common practice among advertisers is to create new relationships between objects and interpretants by inventing new connections between products and benefits. A classic example of this was equating Marlboro cigarettes with the American frontier spirit. Which of the following terms best describes this practice?


A) subliminal persuasion
B) figure-ground projection
C) semiotic relationships
D) consumer-modeling connections

Answer: C

The ________ for a brand guides how a company uses elements of the marketing mix to influence the consumer's interpretation of the brand's meaning in the marketplace relative to its competitors.

The ________ for a brand guides how a company uses elements of the marketing mix to influence the consumer's interpretation of the brand's meaning in the marketplace relative to its competitors.


A) positioning strategy
B) Gestalt psychology
C) sensory signature
D) priming strategy

Answer: A

Ben Perez is driving along a mountain road. In the distance, he sees a road crew working on a fallen tree that has blocked the highway. When Ben first sees the road crew, which of the following perceptual processes has been engaged?

Ben Perez is driving along a mountain road. In the distance, he sees a road crew working on a fallen tree that has blocked the highway. When Ben first sees the road crew, which of the following perceptual processes has been engaged?


A) exposure
B) attention
C) adaptation
D) interpretation

Answer: A

Nadia Ali loves the feel of her new sweater and the smell of her leather car seats on a crisp fall day. As she passes a billboard, she sees an ad for Baskin-Robbins ice cream and immediately does a U-turn into the shopping center where she knows the famous ice cream store is located. In the above example, Nadia is responding to ________.

Nadia Ali loves the feel of her new sweater and the smell of her leather car seats on a crisp fall day. As she passes a billboard, she sees an ad for Baskin-Robbins ice cream and immediately does a U-turn into the shopping center where she knows the famous ice cream store is located. In the above example, Nadia is responding to ________.


A) sensory inputs emanating from the external environment
B) sensory inputs emanating from the internal environment
C) emotional outputs
D) decision sequences dictated by sensory outputs

Answer: A

An individual may not process stimuli that are in some way threatening, or may distort the meaning of a stimulus to make it less threatening. This type of perceptual filter is called ________.

An individual may not process stimuli that are in some way threatening, or may distort the meaning of a stimulus to make it less threatening. This type of perceptual filter is called ________.


A) perceptual defense
B) perceptual vigilance
C) subliminal perception
D) adaptation

Answer: A

The average adult is exposed to about 3,500 pieces of advertising information every single day, far more information than they can or are willing to process. Consumers who are exposed to more information than they can process are in a state of ________.

The average adult is exposed to about 3,500 pieces of advertising information every single day, far more information than they can or are willing to process. Consumers who are exposed to more information than they can process are in a state of ________.


A) advertising bombardment
B) sensory overload
C) sensory shifting
D) circuit overcapacity

Answer: B

Because the brain's capacity to process information is limited, consumers are very selective about what they pay attention to and tend to select stimuli that relate to their current needs. This type of perceptual filter is called ________.

Because the brain's capacity to process information is limited, consumers are very selective about what they pay attention to and tend to select stimuli that relate to their current needs. This type of perceptual filter is called ________.


A) perceptual defense
B) perceptual vigilance
C) subliminal perception
D) adaptation

Answer: B

When Jane shops, she must feel the fabric of any potential clothing buy before she even bothers to see what the design is. She has a high need to touch. Which sense system is important to Jane in her clothing shopping?

When Jane shops, she must feel the fabric of any potential clothing buy before she even bothers to see what the design is. She has a high need to touch. Which sense system is important to Jane in her clothing shopping?


A) visual
B) auditory
C) haptic
D) liminal


Answer: C

Organizing music using Spotify or another similar application enables users to listen to music virtually anywhere and across multiple devices. This is an example of the ________ determinant of diffusion.

Organizing music using Spotify or another similar application enables users to listen to music virtually anywhere and across multiple devices. This is an example of the ________ determinant of diffusion.


A) relative advantage
B) observability
C) compatibility
D) trialability

Answer: A

Jane is searching for the latest fashion in jeans at the Levi's Friends Store. She connects online using Facebook, and invites Kelsey to shop with her inside the online store. Jane is participating in a form of e-commerce known as ________.

Jane is searching for the latest fashion in jeans at the Levi's Friends Store. She connects online using Facebook, and invites Kelsey to shop with her inside the online store. Jane is participating in a form of e-commerce known as ________.


A) groupon
B) social shopping
C) pure play
D) Facebook commerce

Answer: B

Opinion leaders are more influential when they are ________.

Opinion leaders are more influential when they are ________.


A) much different than the people being influenced
B) quite similar to the people being influenced
C) older than the average consumer
D) wealthier than most consumers

Answer: B

Fallon was the son of a very wealthy banker from Connecticut. The first time Fallon saw an artist on MTV wearing a polished bicycle chain around his neck, he knew he had to get an item like that for himself. Fallon's behavior is best explained by the ________ theory of fashion.

Fallon was the son of a very wealthy banker from Connecticut. The first time Fallon saw an artist on MTV wearing a polished bicycle chain around his neck, he knew he had to get an item like that for himself. Fallon's behavior is best explained by the ________ theory of fashion.


A) trickle-down
B) trickle-up
C) trickle-across
D) prestige-exclusivity

Answer: B

Fashion refers to ________.

Fashion refers to ________.


A) the process of social diffusion by which a new style is adopted by some consumer groups
B) a particular combination of attributes within a style, trend, or fad
C) being positively evaluated by some reference group
D) rejecting the norm and pushing for newness

Answer: B

In general, advertising is more effective when it ________ than when it ________.

In general, advertising is more effective when it ________ than when it ________.


A) tries to create new product preferences; reinforces our existing product preferences
B) reinforces our existing product preferences; tries to create new product preferences
C) relies upon word-of-mouth tactics; relies upon viral marketing tactics
D) relies upon viral marketing tactics; relies upon word-of-mouth tactics

Answer: B

Meagan is planning her wedding and wants everything to be just right, from the invitations and table settings to the ceremony and music selections. Because she feels overwhelmed by all of the information to sort through and the choices to make, she hires a wedding planner to make many of the decisions and purchases for her. Meagan's wedding planner is best described as a(n) ________.

Meagan is planning her wedding and wants everything to be just right, from the invitations and table settings to the ceremony and music selections. Because she feels overwhelmed by all of the information to sort through and the choices to make, she hires a wedding planner to make many of the decisions and purchases for her. Meagan's wedding planner is best described as a(n) ________.


A) innovative communicator
B) surrogate consumer
C) opinion seeker
D) key informant

Answer: B

Several research methods are used to study reference groups and opinion leadership. ________ methods trace communication patterns among members of a group. These techniques allow researchers to systematically map out the interactions that take place among group members.

Several research methods are used to study reference groups and opinion leadership. ________ methods trace communication patterns among members of a group. These techniques allow researchers to systematically map out the interactions that take place among group members.


A) Momentum
B) Behavioral
C) Sociometric
D) Geodemographic

Answer: C


Which of the following statements most accurately defines homophily?

Which of the following statements most accurately defines homophily?


A) Homophily is the degree to which a pair of individuals is similar in terms of education, social status, and beliefs.
B) Homophily is the degree to which a pair of individuals is similar in terms of monetary wealth and lifestyle.
C) Homophily is the degree to which a pair of individuals is similar in terms of ethnicity.
D) Homophily is the degree to which a pair of individuals is similar in terms of sexual orientation.

Answer: A

A marketing manager who wants to identify opinion leaders for her product category should do which of the following?

A marketing manager who wants to identify opinion leaders for her product category should do which of the following?


A) She should find government officials who use the product.
B) She should find socially active persons who are very interested in the product category.
C) She should find intellectuals who can write academic papers about the product category.
D) She should look for people who rely on reward power to develop interest in a product.

Answer: B

Delia's is a clothing retailer that targets teenage girls. It runs coordinated promotions for its catalogs, Web site, and retail outlets. It uses the same models in its catalog and in its print ads as well as on its Web site. Delia's works to make sure its public relations activities as well as its sales promotions harmonize with its advertising in all venues. From this information, you can infer that Delia's is using ________.

Delia's is a clothing retailer that targets teenage girls. It runs coordinated promotions for its catalogs, Web site, and retail outlets. It uses the same models in its catalog and in its print ads as well as on its Web site. Delia's works to make sure its public relations activities as well as its sales promotions harmonize with its advertising in all venues. From this information, you can infer that Delia's is using ________.


a. buzz marketing
b. experiential marketing
c. integrated marketing communication
d. word-of-mouth marketing
e. database marketing


Answer: integrated marketing communication

A manufacturer of a variety of technological devices asked its marketing department to develop inexpensive methods of building and maintaining brand awareness and excitement. The marketing department then recruited consumers who were early adopters of technological devices to spread the word about the company's new products. This is an example of ________.

A manufacturer of a variety of technological devices asked its marketing department to develop inexpensive methods of building and maintaining brand awareness and excitement. The marketing department then recruited consumers who were early adopters of technological devices to spread the word about the company's new products. This is an example of ________.


a. public service activities
b. nonpersonal marketing
c. buzz marketing
d. sales promotion
e. direct marketing


Answer: buzz marketing

"Buy it now" is the message of ________.

"Buy it now" is the message of ________. 


a. personal selling
b. advertising
c. a nonpersonal communication channel
d. sales promotion
e. publicity


Answer: sales promotion

Business-to-consumer companies are more likely to emphasize a ________ promotion strategy, while business-to-business companies are more likely to emphasize a ________ promotion strategy.

Business-to-consumer companies are more likely to emphasize a ________ promotion strategy, while business-to-business companies are more likely to emphasize a ________ promotion strategy.


a. pull; push
b. push; pull
c. pulse; pull
d. continuity; pulse
e. pulse; continuity


Answer: pull; push

In the introduction stage of the product life cycle, a combination of ________ is best for producing high awareness.

In the introduction stage of the product life cycle, a combination of ________ is best for producing high awareness.


a. indirect marketing and personal selling
b. advertising and public relations
c. public relations and personal selling
d. personal selling and direct marketing
e. direct marketing and sales promotion


Answer: advertising and public relations

A consumer is reading a magazine with an advertisement, but is distracted from reading the advertisement or its key points. This unplanned static or distortion during the communication process is called ________.

A consumer is reading a magazine with an advertisement, but is distracted from reading the advertisement or its key points. This unplanned static or distortion during the communication process is called ________.


a. noise
b. distraction
c. feedback
d. response
e. decoding


Answer: noise

All of the following are reasons that marketers are losing confidence in television advertising EXCEPT which one?

All of the following are reasons that marketers are losing confidence in television advertising EXCEPT which one?


a. TV ad spending is rising at a slower rate than online ad spending.
b. TV and other mass media no longer capture the lion share of promotional budgets.
c. Many viewers are using video streaming or DVRs.
d. Mass media costs are rising.
e. TV audience size is on the decline.


Answer: TV and other mass media no longer capture the lion share of promotional budgets.

Companies often fail to integrate their various communications to consumers because ________.

Companies often fail to integrate their various communications to consumers because ________. 


a. historically consumers have been able to distinguish between message sources
b. advertising departments are reluctant to work with public relations professionals
c. communications often come from different parts of the company
d. personal selling and sales promotion are in direct conflict
e. they have overemphasized the concept of brand contact


Answer: communications often come from different parts of the company

More companies are adopting the concept of ________, which carefully integrates and coordinates the company's many communication channels to deliver a clear, consistent, and compelling message about the organization and its brands.

More companies are adopting the concept of ________, which carefully integrates and coordinates the company's many communication channels to deliver a clear, consistent, and compelling message about the organization and its brands.


a. integrated marketing communications
b. integrated personal selling
c. integrated competitive methods
d. nonpersonal communication channels
e. buzz marketing


Answer: integrated marketing communications

Companies are doing less ________ and more ________ as a result of an explosion of more focused media that better match today's targeting strategies.

Companies are doing less ________ and more ________ as a result of an explosion of more focused media that better match today's targeting strategies. 



a. marketing; media
b. media; sales
c. narrowcasting; broadcasting
d. broadcasting; narrowcasting
e. advertising; word-of-mouth


Answer: broadcasting; narrowcasting

Moving away from ________, marketers have been shifting toward highly focused marketing, spawning a new generation of more specialized and highly targeted communications efforts.

Moving away from ________, marketers have been shifting toward highly focused marketing, spawning a new generation of more specialized and highly targeted communications efforts.


a. mass marketing
b. advertising
c. direct marketing
d. pull strategies
e. push strategies


Answer: mass marketing

Which of the following is NOT a factor in the changes occurring in today's marketing communications?

Which of the following is NOT a factor in the changes occurring in today's marketing communications? 



a. Mass markets have fragmented, and marketers are shifting away from mass marketing.
b. Improvements in communication technologies are changing how companies and customers communicate with each other.
c. Companies routinely invest millions of dollars in the mass media.
d. Mass media no longer capture the majority of promotional budgets.
e. Today's consumers are better informed about products and services.


Answer: Mass media no longer capture the majority of promotional budgets.

The promotion mix is the company's primary communication activity; the marketing mix must be coordinated for the greatest communication impact. What is NOT included in the entire marketing mix?

The promotion mix is the company's primary communication activity; the marketing mix must be coordinated for the greatest communication impact. What is NOT included in the entire marketing mix? 



a. product
b. competitor
c. price
d. place
e. promotion


Answer: competitor

Today's consumers do not need to rely on marketer-supplied information about products and services because they can use ________ to seek out a wealth of information.

Today's consumers do not need to rely on marketer-supplied information about products and services because they can use ________ to seek out a wealth of information.



a. marketing communications
b. direct marketing
c. the Internet and other technologies
d. mass market media
e. informative advertising


Answer: the Internet and other technologies

A company's total marketing communications mix consists of a special blend of advertising, sales promotion, public relations, personal selling, and direct-marketing tools that the company uses to communicate customer value and build customer relationships. This is also called ________.

A company's total marketing communications mix consists of a special blend of advertising, sales promotion, public relations, personal selling, and direct-marketing tools that the company uses to communicate customer value and build customer relationships. This is also called ________. 



a. direct marketing
b. integrated marketing
c. the promotion mix
d. competitive marketing
e. target marketing


Answer: the promotion mix

Generally speaking, a company's marketing channel objectives are influenced by the level of customer service sought, the nature of the company, its products, its marketing intermediaries, its competitors, and the environment.

Generally speaking, a company's marketing channel objectives are influenced by the level of customer service sought, the nature of the company, its products, its marketing intermediaries, its competitors, and the environment.



a. True
b. False


Answer: True

To reduce inventory management costs, many companies use a system called ________, which involves carrying only small inventories of parts or merchandise, often only enough for a few days of operation.

To reduce inventory management costs, many companies use a system called ________, which involves carrying only small inventories of parts or merchandise, often only enough for a few days of operation. 



a. reduction-inventory management
b. just-in-time logistics
c. limited inventory logistics
d. supply chain management
e. economic order quantity


Answer: just-in-time logistics

China and India each contain more than one billion people. However, companies can access only a small percentage of these potential markets due to ________.

China and India each contain more than one billion people. However, companies can access only a small percentage of these potential markets due to ________.



a. inadequate distribution systems
b. indifference toward Western products
c. high regional taxes
d. the religious caste system
e. insurmountable language barriers


Answer: inadequate distribution systems

Joanie Calvert is experiencing a disagreement with intermediaries in the channel over who should do what and for what rewards. Joanie is experiencing ________.

Joanie Calvert is experiencing a disagreement with intermediaries in the channel over who should do what and for what rewards. Joanie is experiencing ________.



a. a tying disagreement
b. channel conflict
c. channel disintermediation
d. third-party logistics
e. channel intermediation


Answer: channel conflict

From the economic system's point of view, the role of marketing intermediaries is to transform the assortment of products made by producers into the assortment of products wanted by ________.

From the economic system's point of view, the role of marketing intermediaries is to transform the assortment of products made by producers into the assortment of products wanted by ________.



a. channel members
b. distributors
c. consumers
d. manufacturers
e. marketers


Answer: consumers

When suppliers, distributors, and customers partner with each other to improve the performance of the entire system, they are participating in a ________.

When suppliers, distributors, and customers partner with each other to improve the performance of the entire system, they are participating in a ________.



a. value delivery network
b. channel of distribution
c. supply chain
d. demand chain
e. conventional distribution channel


Answer: value delivery network

Intermediaries play an important role in matching ________.

Intermediaries play an important role in matching ________.



a. dealer with customer
b. supply and demand
c. product to region
d. manufacturer to product
e. information and promotion


Answer: supply and demand

______ the manufacturer or service provider is the set of firms that supply the raw materials, components, parts, information, finances, and expertise needed to create a product or service.

______ the manufacturer or service provider is the set of firms that supply the raw materials, components, parts, information, finances, and expertise needed to create a product or service.



a. Downstream from
b. Upstream from
c. Disintermediated from
d. Horizontal to
e. Parallel with


Answer: Upstream from

Arturo is having a medical procedure that requires the application of a local anesthetic, tetracaine, to his eye. What should he know about this medication?

Arturo is having a medical procedure that requires the application of a local anesthetic, tetracaine, to his eye. What should he know about this medication?


This medication may have the effect of causing his eyelashes to thicken.

He should massage his eye vigorously to help the effects of the medication wear off quickly.

He should wear an eye patch because the medication causes a temporary loss of the blink reflex.


Morris, 73 years of age, has been having severe anxiety following the death of his wife. What benzodiazepine is considered to be preferable for older adults because of its relatively short half-life and inactive metabolites?

Morris, 73 years of age, has been having severe anxiety following the death of his wife. What benzodiazepine is considered to be preferable for older adults because of its relatively short half-life and inactive metabolites?


clorazepate
midazolam
lorazepam

In the United States, 70% of diabetics die from ____.

In the United States, 70% of diabetics die from ____.


heart attack or stroke
neuropathy
cancer associated with oral antidiabetic agents
profound hypoglycemia


Answer: heart attack or stroke

Short-acting beta agonists are ____.

Short-acting beta agonists are ____.


antihistamines
maintenance medications
rescue medications
antitussives


Answer: rescue medications

Oran is taking a bulk-forming laxative for constipation. Bulk-forming laxatives work by ____.

Oran is taking a bulk-forming laxative for constipation. Bulk-forming laxatives work by ____.


moistening the stool through a detergent action
promoting secretion of water into the intestinal lumen
softening and coating the stool with a lubricant
softening the stool by absorbing water and increasing fecal mass to facilitate defecation


Answer: softening the stool by absorbing water and increasing fecal mass to facilitate defecation

Halle is taking an antipsychotic that may cause her to experience extrapyramidal side effects because it blocks dopamine receptors and unbalances cholinergic activities. What antipsychotic might she be taking?

Halle is taking an antipsychotic that may cause her to experience extrapyramidal side effects because it blocks dopamine receptors and unbalances cholinergic activities. What antipsychotic might she be taking?


risperidone
chlorpromazine
aripiprazole


Tegan uses sublingual nitroglycerin for angina and has been warned to store it in a glass container with a tightly fitting screw top away from heat, because it is so sensitive to environmental conditions. How can she tell if, despite her efforts, the medication has lost its potency?

Tegan uses sublingual nitroglycerin for angina and has been warned to store it in a glass container with a tightly fitting screw top away from heat, because it is so sensitive to environmental conditions. How can she tell if, despite her efforts, the medication has lost its potency? 


She will get a severe rash and itching.
The medication will change color and smell odd.
She will not feel tingling when she places it under her tongue.
Her vision will blur and her mouth will get dry.


Answer: She will not feel tingling when she places it under her tongue.

As you wait in a drug store check-out line, you read the label on the bismuth subsalicylate antidiarrheal you're holding. You notice that it should not be used by children or adolescents recovering from chicken pox or influenza. Why is a product with bismuth subsalicylate potentially dangerous to children and adolescents recovering from chicken pox or influenza?

As you wait in a drug store check-out line, you read the label on the bismuth subsalicylate antidiarrheal you're holding. You notice that it should not be used by children or adolescents recovering from chicken pox or influenza. Why is a product with bismuth subsalicylate potentially dangerous to children and adolescents recovering from chicken pox or influenza?


Because the patient may develop an intestinal intussusception

Because there is a high risk of overdose

Because there is a risk of Reye's syndrome

Because it contains an opioid and is addictive


Answer: Because there is a risk of Reye's syndrome

Sapphire has rhinitis and has been prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid. What is important for her to know about its use?

Sapphire has rhinitis and has been prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid. What is important for her to know about its use?


The medication should be started before symptoms occur.

The medication will relieve congestion but not inflammation.

The medication should be used only when symptoms occur.

The medication should be used only after rinsing the mouth with mouthwash to avoid fungal infections.


Answer: The medication should be started before symptoms occur.

Adam is astounded when he is diagnosed with osteoporosis, which he has always thought of as a women's disease. What agent can be prescribed that will increase GI calcium absorption and renal tubular reabsorption of calcium?

Adam is astounded when he is diagnosed with osteoporosis, which he has always thought of as a women's disease. What agent can be prescribed that will increase GI calcium absorption and renal tubular reabsorption of calcium?



raloxifene
teriparatide
alendronate