NAIMMCQ: March 2016

Archive for March 2016

_____ is the treatment provided by a physician to a patient for the purpose of preventing, diagnosing, or treating an illness, injury, or its symptoms in a manner which is appropriate and is provided in accordance with generally accepted standards of medical practice.

_____ is the treatment provided by a physician to a patient for the purpose of preventing, diagnosing, or treating an illness, injury, or its symptoms...

A ______ is a document that specifies the amount the payer agrees to pay the provider for a service, based on a contracted rate of reimbursement.

A ______ is a document that specifies the amount the payer agrees to pay the provider for a service, based on a contracted rate of reimbursement. Answer:...

A ______ is an electronic document that lists patients, dates of services, charges, and the amount paid or denied by the insurance carrier.

A ______ is an electronic document that lists patients, dates of services, charges, and the amount paid or denied by the insurance carrier. Answer: Electronic...

Once locating claims and filters have been applied, only claims that _______.

Once locating claims and filters have been applied, only claims that _______. Answer: match the criteria are listed at the bottom of the main claim...

The document needed to enter charge transactions in Medisoft is a _________.

The document needed to enter charge transactions in Medisoft is a _________. Answer: patients encounter for...

A sworn in verbal testimony is called

A sworn in verbal testimony is called Answer: depositio...

What type of person must function under direct supervision of a physician ?

What type of person must function under direct supervision of a physician ? Answer: non-licensed employe...

Define the Geneva convention ?

Define the Geneva convention ? Answer: It refers to colleagues as brothers and states that religion, race, and other such factors are not a consideration...

Out of the 4 categories of employees list which two are voluntary and which one is mandatory ?

Out of the 4 categories of employees list which two are voluntary and which one is mandatory ? Answer: certification and registration are voluntary license...

Name the 3 branches of government ?

Name the 3 branches of government legislative: enact executive: enforce judicial: interpret...

City curfews fall under what type of law ?

City curfews fall under what type of law Answer: Ordinance...

When the constitution guarantees citizens the right to be left alone, to make decisions about ones body and to control one's own information is called

When the constitution guarantees citizens the right to be left alone, to make decisions about ones body and to control one's own information is called Answer: right...

Defamation is what type of law ?

Defamation is what type of law ? Answer: Intentional tort...

Insurance fraud is what type of law ?

Insurance fraud is what type of law ? Answer: Malfeasanc...

What does private law consists of consists of ?

What does private law consists of consists of ? Answer: the body of rules and principles that govern the rights and duties between private pa...

What law does not deal with criminal law ?

What law does not deal with criminal law ? Answer: Civil L...

What law is large segment of criminal law ?

What law is large segment of criminal law ? Answer: Public la...

What does federal jurisdiction refer to ?

What does federal jurisdiction refer to ? Answer: state cases that take place on federal ground...

Name the care the requires a doctor to use ordinary and reasonable skills when caring for a patient ?

Name the care the requires a doctor to use ordinary and reasonable skills when caring for a patient ? Answer: Standards of Car...

Who is a defendant ?

Who is a defendant ? Answer: The person or group accused in a court of actio...

What are the first 10 amendments referred to as

What are the first 10 amendments referred to as Answer: Bill of Righ...

Define Constitution ?

Define Constitution ? The fundamental law of a nation or state, establishes the basis principles, must conform, organize the branches of government...

Define Diversity Jurisdiction ?

Define Diversity Jurisdiction ? Answer: Cases involving parties who are citizens of different states and the amount in controversies is over ...

Define Partnership ?

Define Partnership ? Answer: Type of business management involving two or more individuals who are co-owners of the busines...

Name the code of ethics that is a result of WWII war criminals and made provisions guidelines for safe human experimentation

Name the code of ethics that is a result of WWII war criminals and made provisions guidelines for safe human experimentation Answer: Nuremberg...

A business that is owned by a single individual who receives all profit and takes all the risk is called

A business that is owned by a single individual who receives all profit and takes all the risk is called Answer: sole proprietorsh...

Laws that are passed or regulated at a local level is called

Laws that are passed or regulated at a local level is called Answer: Ordinance...

What government branch enforces law?

What government branch enforces law? Answer: Executive Branc...

What is an updated guideline for human experimentation ?

What is an updated guideline for human experimentation ? Answer: declaration of helsin...

A set of morals standards of right/wrong behaviors that govern individual interactions with others and with society is called

A set of morals standards of right/wrong behaviors that govern individual interactions with others and with society is called Answer: e...

Name the code of ethics that states a standard care is directed toward office and clinical assisting ?

Name the code of ethics that states a standard care is directed toward office and clinical assisting ? Answer: Medical assistance code of et...

A type of practice that has shared investments and where more people will be involved in the patient's care is called

A type of practice that has shared investments and where more people will be involved in the patient's care is called Answer: group pra...

Define the controlled substance act ?

Define the controlled substance act ? Answer: Federal law regulating the administration dispensing and prescribing medication...

What government branch enacts the laws ?

What government branch enacts the laws ? Answer: Legislative Bran...

What is known as pre-trial investigation ?

What is known as pre-trial investigation ? Answer: Discover...

What government branch interprets law ?

What government branch interprets law ? Answer: Judicial Branc...

Name the 4 categories of employees within a medical office ?

Name the 4 categories of employees within a medical office ? Answer: certification registration licensed and unlicensed...

Name two types of liabilities ?

Name two types of liabilities ? Answer: Criminal and Civi...

What type of medical practice management is: a group of medical providers who organize and agree to provide medical care and treatment to clients?

What type of medical practice management is: a group of medical providers who organize and agree to provide medical care and treatment to clients? Answer: Group...

Name 5 code of ethics that a medical assistant will strive to maintain ?

Name 5 code of ethics that a medical assistant will strive to maintain ? Answer: Dignity, Loyalty to the employer, Privacy, Aspire to render greater...

What states the goals of a group in terms of how a business operates and how it will treat customers and competitors ?

What states the goals of a group in terms of how a business operates and how it will treat customers and competitors ? Answer: Code of ethic...

Name 3 types of group practice ?

Name 3 types of group practice ? Answer: Single specialty. Multispecialty. Primary care group...

What code of ethic law allows for care of all ?

What code of ethic law allows for care of all ? Answer: Geneva convention code of ethic...

When can the administrative procedure act make decisions ?

When can the administrative procedure act make decisions ? Answer: Under the administrative procedure act, agencies may not make decisions until: They...

What type of law is a conflict between the government and private parties ?

What type of law is a conflict between the government and private parties ? Answer: Public La...

What type of consent is assumed based on fact or law ?

What type of consent is assumed based on fact or law ? Answer: Implied Consen...

The right of a court to hear and decide a case is ?

The right of a court to hear and decide a case is ? Answer: Jurisdictio...

Pertaining to court procedures who is the party that initiates a lawsuit ?

Pertaining to court procedures who is the party that initiates a lawsuit ? Answer: Plaintif...

Pertaining to court procedures who is the party that is being sued ?

Pertaining to court procedures who is the party that is being sued ? Answer: defendan...

How are drugs controlled ?

How are drugs controlled ? Answer: Drugs are controlled due to their potential for abus...

Controlled substances are categorized into how many schedules ?

Controlled substances are categorized into how many schedules ? Answer: 5 schedule...

What does medical specialization enhance ?

What does medical specialization enhance ? Answer: the quality of car...

What branch of government enforces the law ?

What branch of government enforces the law ? Answer: Executive branc...

Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the strongest form of regulation ?

Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the strongest form of regulation ? Answer: Licen...

Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the most common form of regulation ?

Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the most common form of regulation ? Answer: Certificatio...

Private Law is also called ?

Private Law is also called ? Answer: Civil La...

Name four Criminal Liabilities ?

Name four Criminal Liabilities Are: Insurance Fraud Client/Child Abuse Breach of Controlled Substance Act Negligence...

T/F: registration and certification is voluntary, where licensure is mandatory

T/F: registration and certification is voluntary, where licensure is mandatory Answer: Tr...

What are the four categories of employees? is licensure the strongest form of regulation?

What are the four categories of employees? is licensure the strongest form of regulation? Answer: Certification Registration License: Yes,...

What is bonding ?

What is bonding ? Answer: An insurance contract by which a bonding agreement guarantees payment of a specified sum to an employee in the...

What is a joint venture?

What is a joint venture? Answer: A type of business management formed by hospitals, physicians, and other providers, and clinics to offer...

What is a major advantage of being part of a group practice?

What is a major advantage of being part of a group practice? Answer: A shared financial investment for diagnostic and therapeutic equipment,...

What two type of reimbursement do group practice operate on?

What two type of reimbursement do group practice operate on? Answer: fee for service or point of service reimbursement...

What is a group practice?

What is a group practice? Answer: Type of business management in which three or more individuals organize to render professional service and share...

What kind of medical group consist of licensed individuals who organize together to render professional services to the people?

What kind of medical group consist of licensed individuals who organize together to render professional services to the people? Answer: Professional...

What are some advantages vs. disadvantages of a partnership?

What are some advantages vs. disadvantages of a partnership? Answer: Advantages: easily recognized, bring additional managerial skills, share...

What kind of practice is an association of two or more people who are co-owners of a business, for profit?

What kind of practice is an association of two or more people who are co-owners of a business, for profit? Answer: Partnersh...

What are some advantages vs. disadvantages to sole proprietorship?

What are some advantages vs. disadvantages to sole proprietorship? Answer: Advantages: take all profit, being one's own boss, lower organization...

In medical practice management, a single practitioner is considered what?

In medical practice management, a single practitioner is considered what? Answer: Sole Proprietorsh...

What 3 questions have been developed to aid in determination of ethics/ethical judgment on behalf of the medical assistant?

What 3 questions have been developed to aid in determination of ethics/ethical judgment on behalf of the medical assistant? Answer: Is it legal...

Will medical specialization enhance the quality of health care? Can it increase the cost of health care? Why or why not?

Will medical specialization enhance the quality of health care? Can it increase the cost of health care? Why or why not? Answer: Medical...

What is another term for "moral issues and problems that have risen as a result of modern medicine?"

What is another term for "moral issues and problems that have risen as a result of modern medicine?" Answer: Bioethic...

What does the Medical Assistant Code of Ethics strive to maintain by those who undertake the oath?

What does the Medical Assistant Code of Ethics strive to maintain by those who undertake the oath? Answer: They will strive to maintain...

Why is the Nuremberg Code important in regards to human experimentation?

Why is the Nuremberg Code important in regards to human experimentation? Answer: Established as a results of the trials of WWII war criminals...

What does the Geneva Convention entail?

What does the Geneva Convention entail? Answer: States that religion, race, and other factors are not a consideration for care of the total...

T/F: Professional code of ethics is established by a group of professionals and they define how members of that profession should behave.

T/F: Professional code of ethics is established by a group of professionals and they define how members of that profession should behave. Answer:&...

What is the difference between Law and code of ethics ?

What is the difference between Law and code of ethics ? Answer: Law is societal rules of regulations that are advisable or obligatory to observe...

ACA Stands for

ACA Stands for Affordable Care Act&nbs...

HITECH Stands for

HITECH Stands for Answer: Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act&nbs...

MMDDCCYY format Stands for

MMDDCCYY format Stands for Answer: Medisoft Program Da...

EDI Stands for

EDI Stands for Answer: Electronic Data Interchan...

EOB Stands for

EOB Stands for Answer: Explanation of Benefits&nbs...

NPI Stands for

NPI Stands for Answer: National Provider Identifi...

HIT Stands for

HIT Stands for Answer: Health Information Technology&nbs...

EHR Stands for

EHR Stands for Answer: Electronic Health Record&nbs...

HIPAA Stands for

HIPAA Stands for Answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996&nbs...

RA Stands for

RA Stands for Answer: Remittance Advice&nbs...

PMPs Stands for

PMPs Stands for Answer: Practice Management Programs&nbs...

PHR Stands for

PHR Stands for Answer: Personal Health Reco...

The document explaining the results of the adjudication process is called a remittance advice or _____ generated by a payer to a provider.

The document explaining the results of the adjudication process is called a remittance advice or _____ generated by a payer to a provider. Answer: Explanation...

When a claim is received by a payer, it is reviewed following a process known as adjudication, this is ______.

When a claim is received by a payer, it is reviewed following a process known as adjudication, this is ______. Answer: a series of steps...

The _____ regulates the protection of individually identifiable information about a patient's health and payment for healthcare that is created or received by a healthcare provider.

The _____ regulates the protection of individually identifiable information about a patient's health and payment for healthcare that is created or received...

Default time slots in Office Hours is in

Default time slots in Office Hours is in Answer: 15 minute slots per appointmen...

The Office Hours calendar is used to _________.

The Office Hours calendar is used to _________. Answer: Select or change date...

_____ is a report that traces who has accessed patient information, when it was accessed, and if any information was altered in any way.

_____ is a report that traces who has accessed patient information, when it was accessed, and if any information was altered in any way. Answer: Breach...

The _______ protects individually identifiable information about a patient's health and payment for healthcare that is created or received by a healthcare provider.

The _______ protects individually identifiable information about a patient's health and payment for healthcare that is created or received by a healthcare...

Security Standards consist of 3 categories _____

Security Standards consist of 3 categories _______, ________, _________. Answer: Administrative - Management is assigned to one person Physical...

Pre-registering patients is Step 1 in the Billing Cycle. This consist of gather the following information before the office visit such as __

Pre-registering patients is Step 1 in the Billing Cycle. This consist of gather the following information before the office visit such as _________ Name Contact...

The _________ contains a number of rules, including:

The _________ contains a number of rules, including: -HIPAA Electronic Transaction and COde Sets standards -HIPAA Privacy Rule -HIPAA Security Rule -File...

Step 3 of the Billing Cycle is ________. This consists of having the patient complete patient information form, verifying identity by photocopying or scanning the patient's insurance card and photo ID.

Step 3 of the Billing Cycle is ________. This consists of having the patient complete patient information form, verifying identity by photocopying or...

Office Hours contains Four main areas:

Office Hours contains Four main areas: Provider Selection Box Provider's Daily Schedule Office Hours Calendar Office Hours Patient Information&n...

To search for a future appointment in Office Hours, use the _______

To search for a future appointment in Office Hours, use the _______ Answer: Go to a Date shortcut button on the toolbar&nbs...

An ______ is a computerized lifelong healthcare record for an individual that incorporates data from all providers who treat the individual.

An ______ is a computerized lifelong healthcare record for an individual that incorporates data from all providers who treat the individual. Answer: Electronic...

_____ is a copy of data made at a specific time, it can be used to restore data.

_____ is a copy of data made at a specific time, it can be used to restore data. Answer: Backup da...

The _____ is a federal legislation that includes provisions designed to increase access to healthcare, improve the quality of healthcare, and explore new models of delivering and paying for healthcare.

The _____ is a federal legislation that includes provisions designed to increase access to healthcare, improve the quality of healthcare, and explore...

The ______ provides financial incentives to physicians and hospitals to adopt EHRs and strengthens HIPAA privacy and security regulations.

The ______ provides financial incentives to physicians and hospitals to adopt EHRs and strengthens HIPAA privacy and security regulations. Answer: Health...

Medisoft is a practice management program that consist of a database a _____

Medisoft is a practice management program that consist of a database a _____ Answer: Collection of related bits of information...

An encounter form is a ______

An encounter form is a ______ Answer: list of procedures and diagnoses for a patient's visit...

HIPAA Privacy Requirements Rule mandates that _______.

HIPAA Privacy Requirements Rule mandates that _______. Notify Patients Train Employees Appoint a Staff Member Secure Patient Records...

An ____ is a report that traces who has accessed electronic information, when information was accessed and whether any information was changed.

An ____ is a report that traces who has accessed electronic information, when information was accessed and whether any information was changed. Answer: Audit...

___ is when the system empties the information from the record but keeps the empty slot in the database so it is available when new data needs to be entered in the system.

____ is when the system empties the information from the record but keeps the empty slot in the database so it is available when new data needs to be...

___ are used in a variety of different medical facilities where medical offices have capabilities such as EHRs, streamline billing, scheduling, and other administrative and financial tasks.

________ are used in a variety of different medical facilities where medical offices have capabilities such as EHRs, streamline billing, scheduling,...

The ______ feature with Medisoft automatically logs the user off due to inactivity.

The ______ feature with Medisoft automatically logs the user off due to inactivity. Answer: Auto Log O...

A ______ is a unique number that identifies a patient. this links all information about a patient.

A ______ is a unique number that identifies a patient. this links all information about a patient. Answer: chart numb...

___ is the process of updating balances to reflect the most recent changes made to the data.

______ is the process of updating balances to reflect the most recent changes made to the data. Answer: Recalculating balanc...

The _______ is a ten position numerical identifier consisting of all numbers.

The _______ is a ten position numerical identifier consisting of all numbers. Answer: National Provider Identifier (NP...

The electronic transmission of data is called

The electronic transmission of data is called Answer: Electronic Data Interchange (ED...

What are other two services are not in in the need of an E/M code?

What are other two services are not in in the need of an E/M code? Chemotherapy Dialysis...

Why do infusions not need an E/M code?

Why do infusions not need an E/M code? Answer: Prolonged intravenous injection...

If the _ service that was provided was an _ you do not report an E/M code.

If the _______ service that was provided was an _______ you do not report an E/M code. Answer: -only -injecti...

True or False: If a patient is given a vaccine in the course of an E/M service, then the administration code is reported second then the vaccine in addition to the E/M code. If False, why?

True or False: If a patient is given a vaccine in the course of an E/M service, then the administration code is reported second then the vaccine in...

What are part of Medicine in the dialysis subsection

What are part of Medicine in the dialysis subsection Answer: -chemotherapy -infusi...

The dialysis subsection of the Medicine section is divided into what

The dialysis subsection of the Medicine section is divided into what Answer: types of dialysi...

What does it mean when dialysis may be permanent ?

What does it mean when dialysis may be permanent ? Answer: The case of a patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who will not recover without...

What does it mean when dialysis may be temporary

What does it mean when dialysis may be temporary Answer: the case of a patient who has acute renal failure from which he or she recover...

What is dialysis ?

What is dialysis ? Answer: the cleansing of the blood of waste products when it is not possible for the body to perform the cleansing function...

If a patient is given a vaccines in the course of an E/M service what code would you assign with the administration and vaccine/toxoids codes

If a patient is given a vaccines in the course of an E/M service what code would you assign with the administration and vaccine/toxoids codes Answer: E/M...

How do most payers want you to report the administration codes

How do most payers want you to report the administration codes Answer: use the "times" symbol (X) to indicate the number of injections ...

What modifier should NOT be reported for the vaccines/toxoids when performed with administration procedures

What modifier should NOT be reported for the vaccines/toxoids when performed with administration procedures Answer: 51 multiple code...

The vaccine toxoids subsection codes report

The vaccine toxoids subsection codes report Answer: vaccine products for immunization...

In many of the code description what are identified

In many of the code description what are identified Answer: specific age...

What do codes 90471-90474 report ?

What do codes 90471-90474 report ? Answer: Immunizations at which the physician did NOT provide counseling for patients of any age including...

For vaccines with multiple components (combined vaccines) what would you report ?

For vaccines with multiple components (combined vaccines) what would you report ? Answer: Report 90460 in conjunction with 90461 for additional...

What code should you report for each vaccine administrated

What code should you report for each vaccine administrated Answer: Report code 9046...

Codes 90460-90461 report what ?

Codes 90460-90461 report what ? Answer: Immunizations administered for patients through age 18 and for which counseling has been provided to the...

Report each dose administered as

Report each dose administered as Answer: Single or combination with the appropriate administration cod...

The administration codes are divided based on the _ of administration and in some codes, the patient , and when administered with ____.

The administration codes are divided based on the _______ of administration and in some codes, the patient ____, and when administered with __________. Answer: -method -age -physician...

What are the variety of methods that are utilized to deliver the vaccine/toxoid :

What are the variety of methods that are utilized to deliver the vaccine/toxoid : percutaneous intradermal subcutaneous intramuscular intra...

Immunization reporting requires 2 codes:

Immunization reporting requires 2 codes: one to report the administration one to report the substance administered...

The immunization administration codes (90460-90474) are reported in conjunction with

The immunization administration codes (90460-90474) are reported in conjunction with Answer: vaccines toxoids subsection codes (90476-9...

The codes in this subsection identify only the immune globulin and must be reported with the appropriate ________code.

The codes in this subsection identify only the immune globulin ________ and must be reported with the appropriate ________________code. Answer: The...

The immune globulins are passive immunization agents obtained from

The immune globulins are passive immunization agents obtained from Answer: Pooled human plasma that is immune to a particular diseas...

The first 3 subsections in the Medicine section are

The first 3 subsections in the Medicine section are Immune globulins serum recombinant products, Immunization administration for vaccine/toxoids and Vaccine...

Active immunization is

Active immunization is Answer: The type given when it is anticipated that the person will be in contact with the disease. they can also be toxoids...

There are two types of immunizations what are they

There are two types of immunizations what are they ? What are the two types of immunizations? Also list the definition for both. active passive Active:...

The section begins with subsection information and guidelines applicable to all of the Medicine section codes such as

The section begins with subsection information and guidelines applicable to all of the Medicine section codes such as Answer: add-on codes separate...

The medicine section 90281-99607 report diagnostic and therapeutic services that are generally _ (not entering a body cavity), but there are also __ (entering the body cavity) procedures done in the section, such as cardiac catheterization.

The medicine section 90281-99607 report diagnostic and therapeutic services that are generally _____ (not entering a body cavity), but there are also...

What causes pernicious anemia ?

What causes pernicious anemia ? Answer: Deficiency in vitamin ...

Donating your own blood before a surgery is called

Donating your own blood before a surgery is called Answer: Autologou...

What does the term attenuation mean

What does the term attenuation mean Answer: weakened with heat or chemical...

How many type of WBCs are there and what are they

How many type of WBCs are there and what are they Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils, Monocytes, and Lymphocytes....

A decrease in WBCs below 5000 is called

A decrease in WBCs below 5000 is called Answer: Leukopeni...

Which lymphoid tissue removes harmful things that are swallowed or inhaled

Which lymphoid tissue removes harmful things that are swallowed or inhaled Answer: Tonsil...

The process of WBCs engulfing foreign particles is called

The process of WBCs engulfing foreign particles is called Answer: Phagocytosi...

What are the formed elements of of the blood

What are the formed elements of of the blood Erythrocytes leukocytes Platelets, thrombocytes...

The total volume of blood in an average adult is approximately

The total volume of blood in an average adult is approximately Answer: 5 Quart...

What does the term anastomoses means ?

What does the term anastomoses means ? Answer: Communication between two structures like blood vessel...

Name the substances that are produced by the B-lymphocytes that target specific foreign invaders

Name the substances that are produced by the B-lymphocytes that target specific foreign invaders Answer: Antibodie...

The volume % if red blood cells in whole blood is known as

The volume % if red blood cells in whole blood is known as Answer: Hematocri...

What are platelets released by ?

What are platelets released by ? Answer: megakaryocyte...

What is the main component in plasma ?

What is the main component in plasma ? Answer: Water 91...

What is Hemostasis ?

What is Hemostasis ? Answer: Process that prevents blood loss from the circulation when a blood vessel is ruptured by an injur...

What is immunization/vaccine ?

What is immunization/vaccine ? Answer: A harmful agent treated to reduce its virulence before being administere...

What is an Allergy ?

What is an Allergy ? Answer: Reacting to certain substances that would be harmless to most peopl...

Which vessels carry dark red deoxygenated blood ?

Which vessels carry dark red deoxygenated blood ? Answer: Vein...

What is the medical term for the rupture of RBCs ?

What is the medical term for the rupture of RBCs ? Answer: Hemolysi...

What are varicose veins ?

What are varicose veins ? Answer: Superficial veins that have become swollen distorted and ineffectiv...

What are the symptoms of HIV ?

What are the symptoms of HIV ? Answer: flu-like symptom...

Protein molecules on the surface of RBCs that react against antibodies are ?

Protein molecules on the surface of RBCs that react against antibodies are ? Answer: Antigen...

Which vessels carry bright red oxygenated blood ?

Which vessels carry bright red oxygenated blood ? Answer: Arterie...

What is the sequence of blood flow through the heart ?

What is the sequence of blood flow through the heart ? Answer: Right atrium right ventricle left atrium left ventricl...

What is the medical term for removal of the tonsils ?

What is the medical term for removal of the tonsils ? Answer: Tonsillectom...

What does the term immunodeficiency mean ?

What does the term immunodeficiency mean ? Answer: Any failure of the immune syste...

What is pneumonia ?

What is pneumonia ? Answer: Inflammation of the lung...

What is autoimmunity ?

What is autoimmunity ? Answer: Abnormal reactivity to one's own tissu...

What is sensitization ?

What is sensitization ? Answer: the ability of a lymphocyte to identify and react to an antige...

How is oxygen transported in the blood stream ?

How is oxygen transported in the blood stream ? Answer: O2 attaches to the hemoglobin in RBC...

Heart rate x stroke volume =

Heart rate x stroke volume = Answer: cardio outpu...

What is the medical term for removal of the spleen ?

What is the medical term for removal of the spleen ? Answer: Splenectom...

What are alveoli ?

What are alveoli ? Answer: Clusters of tiny air sacs where gas exchange takes plac...

What is hodgkin's disease ?

What is hodgkin's disease ? Answer: Chronic malignant disease of the lymphoid tissues esp lymph node...

What does the term asymptomatic mean ?

What does the term asymptomatic mean ? Answer: Producing or showing no symptom...

What is cheyne stokes breathing and when would you see it ?

What is cheyne stokes breathing and when would you see it ? Answer: Variations of depth of breathing with periods of apnea seen in critically...

Where is the thymus located and what is it responsible for ?

Where is the thymus located and what is it responsible for ? Answer: located beneath the sternum active before birth and the first few months...

What fluids are not considered transmitters of the HIV virus even though universal precautions should still apply ?

What fluids are not considered transmitters of the HIV virus even though universal precautions should still apply ? Answer: feces nasal secretions...

The active phase of breathing is called ?

The active phase of breathing is called ? Answer: Inhalatio...

What are the 2 main types of immunity ?

What are the 2 main types of immunity ? Answer: acquired and inbor...

What is the western blot test ?

What is the western blot test ? Answer: Confirmatory test done to check the pressure of HIV protein...

Name the ways that AIDs is transmitted ?

Name the ways that AIDs is transmitted ? Answer: Parenteral needle sticks blood transfusions transplants iv drug use sexual intercourse in ut...

What % of venous blood is still oxygenated ?

What % of venous blood is still oxygenated ? Answer: 70...

What is Septicemia ?

What is Septicemia ? Answer: Blood poisoning due to pathogens entering the bloodstrea...

The medical term for rapid breathing is ?

The medical term for rapid breathing is ? Answer: tachypne...

What is dyspnea?

What is dyspnea? Answer: Dyspnea is difficult of labored breathin...

What type of immunity is the passage of antibodies from mother to fetus in the uterus ?

What type of immunity is the passage of antibodies from mother to fetus in the uterus ? Answer: Passive Immunit...

What is an antihistamine ?

What is an antihistamine ? Answer: Medication used to block the action of histamin...

The medical term for lack of oxygen to the tissues is called ?

The medical term for lack of oxygen to the tissues is called ? Answer: hypoxi...

What structure prevents the back flow of both blood in the veins and lymph in the lymphatic vessels ?

What structure prevents the back flow of both blood in the veins and lymph in the lymphatic vessels ? Answer: valve...

The valve that is between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the

The valve that is between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the Answer: Bicuspid or mitral valv...

What is Apnea ?

What is Apnea ? Answer: Temporary or absence of breathin...

Patients that have been exposed to a harmful organism are given a dosed of borrowed antibodies that is called ?

Patients that have been exposed to a harmful organism are given a dosed of borrowed antibodies that is called ? Answer: Antiserum or immune s...

What is rejection syndrome ?

What is rejection syndrome ? Answer: The natural tendency of the body to destroy foreign substances including tissues from another pers...

A bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen is called ?

A bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen is called ? Answer: Cyanosi...

What is lymphangitis ?

What is lymphangitis ? Answer: Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels appearing as red streak...

What is the function of an anticoagulant ?

What is the function of an anticoagulant ? Answer: Prevents blood clot...

What are the upper chambers of the heart called ?

What are the upper chambers of the heart called ? Answer: Atri...

What is acquired immunity ?

What is acquired immunity ? Answer: Develops during a person's lifetim...

The double layered sac that covers the outside of the lungs and the walls of the thoracic cavity is called ?

The double layered sac that covers the outside of the lungs and the walls of the thoracic cavity is called ? Answer: Pleur...

What is the primary or acute infection stage of HIV ?

What is the primary or acute infection stage of HIV ? Answer: 10-14 days after initial exposur...

What is the term for enlargement of the spleen ?

What is the term for enlargement of the spleen ? Answer: Splenomegal...

What is the most common cause of death for a patient with AIDs ?

What is the most common cause of death for a patient with AIDs ? Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia PC...

If a patient has difficulty breathing unless they are in an upright position they have a condition called ?

If a patient has difficulty breathing unless they are in an upright position they have a condition called ? Answer: Orthopne...

What condition is caused by the blood of an Rh+ baby mixing blood of an Rh- mother ?

What condition is caused by the blood of an Rh+ baby mixing blood of an Rh- mother ? Answer: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HD...

Which organs in the body are made of lymphoid tissue ?

Which organs in the body are made of lymphoid tissue ? Answer: Tonsils spleen thymu...

What is the name of the disease in which the microscopic air sacs (alveoli) are destroyed ?

What is the name of the disease in which the microscopic air sacs (alveoli) are destroyed ? Answer: Emphysem...

How does the fever help to increase the immune system ?

How does the fever help to increase the immune system ? Answer: It boosts it by stimulating phagocytosis increase metabolism decrease the organism's...

What is Angina Pectoris ?

What is Angina Pectoris ? Answer: Moderate ischemia causes a characteristic discomfor...

Air in the plural cavity is called ?

Air in the plural cavity is called Answer: Pneumothor...

What is the best way for healthcare professionals to prevent the transmission of HIV ?

What is the best way for healthcare professionals to prevent the transmission of HIV ? Answer: Practice universal precautions assume everyone...

What causes HIV/AIDs ?

What causes HIV/AIDs ? Answer: A viru...

What is/are the functions of the lymphatic system ?

What is/are the functions of the lymphatic system ? Fluid balance, Protection from infection and Absorption of fats....

Blood in the plural cavity is called ?

Blood in the plural cavity is called ? Answer: Hemothora...

Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as what type of disease ?

Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as what type of disease ? Answer: Autoimmune diseas...

What disease occurs when the immune system does not recognize mutated cells caused by improper cell division ?

What disease occurs when the immune system does not recognize mutated cells caused by improper cell division ? Answer: Cance...

What type of membrane line the respiratory system ?

What type of membrane line the respiratory system ? Answer: Mucous membran...

What is the medical term for excessive bleed ?

What is the medical term for excessive bleed ? Answer: Hemorrhag...

Which lymph organ is responsible for maturing the T-lymphocytes ?

Which lymph organ is responsible for maturing the T-lymphocytes ? Answer: Thymu...

What is pneumonectomy ?

What is pneumonectomy ? Answer: Removal of the entire lun...

What is also known as the pacemaker of the heart ?

What is also known as the pacemaker of the heart ? Answer: sinoatrial SA nod...

What are antigens ?

What are antigens ? Answer: Protein molecules on the surface of RBCs that react against antibodie...

What is the test that is used ti screen for HIV ?

What is the test that is used ti screen for HIV ? Answer: ELIS...

What is the medical term for a nose bleed ?

What is the medical term for a nose bleed ? Answer: epistaxi...

What are nonspecific defenses ?

What are nonspecific defenses ? Answer: Effective against many different invader...

What are the functions of the spleen ?

What are the functions of the spleen ? Answer: Destroys old worn out RBCs produces RBCs before birth serves as a reservoir for blood harbors phagocytes...

What causes pneumonia ?

What causes pneumonia ? Bacteria, Virus, Fungi....

A specialized system of phagocytic cells that remove potentially harmful substances form the body is called

A specialized system of phagocytic cells that remove potentially harmful substances form the body is called Answer: Reticuloendothelial...

Which lymphoid tissue filters the lymph fluid ?

Which lymphoid tissue filters the lymph fluid ? Answer: lymph node...

What is HIV ?

What is HIV ? Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus, affect T-cells that causes AID...

Where are the vocal cords located ?

Where are the vocal cords located ? Answer: lary...

What term means a person's current health condition ?

What term means a person's current health condition ? Answer: Predispositio...

What are the 2 ways skin tags can be removed ?

What are the 2 ways skin tags can be removed ? Ligation Scissors...

What is the guideline for coding the application and removal of casts and strapping ?

What is the guideline for coding the application and removal of casts and strapping ? Answer: Removal is included in the application as long as...

What is debridement ?

What is debridement ? Answer: Cleaning of the woun...

Explain the difference between open treatment and closed treatment pertaining to fractures :

Explain the difference between open treatment and closed treatment pertaining to fractures : Open Treatment: wound exposed. Closed Treatment: would...

Pertaining to burns how are they divided and what are the %'s that make them different?

Pertaining to burns how are they divided and what are the %'s that make them different? First Degree: 0-5% small, Second Degree: 5.5-10%...

When calculating burns for adults what is the body percentage based on

When calculating burns for adults what is the body percentage based on Answer: rule of nine...

List 3 types of repairs :

List 3 types of repairs : Simple, Intermediate and Complex....

What are the 3 factors that must be considered when coding a wound repair?

What are the 3 factors that must be considered when coding a wound repair: Length, Complex and Site....

Define a surgical package? what is included in it ?

Define a surgical package? what is included in it ? Answer: It includes the operation itself, local anesthesia, typical postoperative follow up...

How is moderate conscious sedation different from anesthesia and where can you find this type of code?

How is moderate conscious sedation different from anesthesia and where can you find this type of code? Answer: Moderate or conscious sedation...

What is Analgesia?

What is analgesia? Answer: Absence of pai...

Modifiers 26 & TC mean:

Modifiers 26 & TC mean: TC (Technical Component) and 26(Professional Component), these terms are used by third party payers....

What is the difference between modifier -50 & -51:

What is the difference between modifier -50 & -51: Answer: -50: is a bilateral procedure -51: is multiple procedur...

Should a coder pay close attention to the approach used as well as the method: Yes or No?

Should a coder pay close attention to the approach used as well as the method: Yes or No? Answer: Yes, of cours...

What does the term strangulated mean?

What does the term strangulated mean? The blood supply is cut of...

What is the difference between invasive and noninvasive?

What is the difference between invasive and noninvasive? Answer: -invasive: entering the body, breaking the skin. -noninvasive: not entering...

What is Ablation ?

What is Ablation ? Answer: Removal by cutting or destructio...

Name the 4 lesion treatments

Name the 4 lesion treatments Answer: -paring: peeling, scraping -shaving: slicing -destruction: ablation -excision: cutting, remov...

What is a Puncture Aspiration ?

What is a Puncture Aspiration ? Answer: using a needle to draw out flui...

What is the surgery global period for major and minor ?

What is the surgery global period for major and minor ? Major: 90 days Minor: 10 days...

When do you code minor procedures when they are part of a separate procedure ?

When do you code minor procedures when they are part of a separate procedure ? Answer: Minor is one procedure and major is coded separately if...

Define a Separate Procedure ?

Define a Separate Procedure ? Answer: Procedures followed by "separate procedure" are considered minor that are reported only when they are the...

What is the Anesthesia Formula?

What is the anesthesia formula? Answer: (B + T + M) x CF B Stands for Base units. T Stands for Time units. M Stands for Modifying units. CF...

Define the most common types of anesthesia

Define the most common types of anesthesia Answer: *-endotracheal: insertion of a tube through the nose or mouth into trachea for ventilation *-epidural:...

Name the most common types of anesthesia

Name the most common types of anesthesia -endotracheal -epidural -regional -patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)...

Define anesthesia ?

Define anesthesia ? Answer: Induction or administration of a drug to obtain partial or complete loss of sensatio...

How many levels are there for pathology classification ?

How many levels are there for pathology classification ? Answer: 6 level...

Chemistry codes are for specific tests done on material from any source such as:

Chemistry codes are for specific tests done on material from any source such as: Answer: urine, blood, breath, feces, sputum, et...

A drug test is AKA?

A drug test is AKA? Answer: Qualitativ...

True or False? Drug testing is to identify the presence or absence of a drug.

True or False? Drug testing is to identify the presence or absence of a drug. Answer: Tr...

True or False? The services in Pathology and Lab section include the laboratory tests only. The collection of the specimen is coded separately from the analysis of the test.

True or False? The services in Pathology and Lab section include the laboratory tests only. The collection of the specimen is coded separately from...

Pathology services coding are formatted according to type of tests performed, ______, , and _. Labs have that allow tests to be performed without a _____ order from the physician.

Pathology services coding are formatted according to type of tests performed, __________, ________, and _______. Labs have ________ that allow tests...

What are the 2 components in radiology?

What are the 2 components in radiology? Answer: Professional and Technica...

It may be stated to mean "supine" means lying on the back. known as?

It may be stated to mean "supine" means lying on the back. known as? Answer: Dorsa...

Please list the positions for Radiology along with the definitions of each:

Please list the positions for Radiology along with the definitions of each: -anteroposterior: front to back position -posteroanterior: his/her back...

A _ is how the patient is placed during the x-ray examination and a __ is the path of the x-ray beam.

A _______ is how the patient is placed during the x-ray examination and a ________ is the path of the x-ray beam. -position -projection...

Define Exostosis ?

Define Exostosis ? Answer: A bony growth and when present in the external auditory canal. aka surfer's ear bc it is associated w/ chronic cold...

Remember to use modifier _____ (bilateral procedure) when the procedure is done on two eyes for instance.

Remember to use modifier _____ (bilateral procedure) when the procedure is done on two eyes for instance. Answer: -...

In regards to the Endocrine and Nervous system, the nervous system contains codes describing procedures done on the , , _____, and all associated parts.

In regards to the Endocrine and Nervous system, the nervous system contains codes describing procedures done on the ________, __________, ___________,...

In regards to Maternity Care and Delivery, Uncomplicated services consist of a global package consisting of:

In regards to Maternity Care and Delivery, Uncomplicated services consist of a global package consisting of: -antepartum care -delivery -postpartum...

Gestation is divided into 3 time periods, called _______. What are they?

Gestation is divided into 3 time periods, called _______. What are they? -Trimesters -First: Last Menstrual Period (LMP) to 12 weeks -Second:...

___ is estimated date of delivery.

______ is estimated date of delivery. Answer: E...

What are the 3 types of procedures that can be performed for a Tubal Ligation?

What are the 3 types of procedures that can be performed for a Tubal Ligation? Tying: of the tubal w/ suture material (ligation) removing: a portion...

One of the factors for coding hernias includes identifying whether the hernia is strangulated. what does strangulated mean?

One of the factors for coding hernias includes identifying whether the hernia is strangulated. what does strangulated mean? Strangulated means...

In regards to a coronary artery bypass, blockage can also be pushed to the side of the coronary arterial walls procedure and is known as?

In regards to a coronary artery bypass, blockage can also be pushed to the side of the coronary arterial walls procedure and is known as? Answer: Percutaneous...

In regards to the Respiratory system, choose the code that most appropriately reflects the _ extent of the procedure. Code the correct __ for the procedure.

In regards to the Respiratory system, choose the code that most appropriately reflects the _______ extent of the procedure. Code the correct ________...

Diagnostic arthroscopy is always included in what type of arthroscopy?

Diagnostic arthroscopy is always included in what type of arthroscopy? Answer: Surgical Arthroscop...

Define Ligament ?

Define Ligament ? Answer: A band of fibrous tissue that connects cartilage or bone and supports a join...

The removal of the __, _, or is included each of the application of and ___ codes.

The removal of the ____, _____, or ____ is included each of the application of ______ and _______codes. Answer: cast, strapping, or splints. casts...

Define Strapping ?

Define Strapping ? Answer: The taping of the body part. it is used to exert pressure on a body part to give it more stability and is used in the...

In regards to Application of Casts and Strapping, these codes are used for _______ of fractures of the extremities, ligament sprains or tears, and overuse injuries.

In regards to Application of Casts and Strapping, these codes are used for _______ of fractures of the extremities, ligament sprains or tears, and overuse...

This type of treatment is performed when the physician repairs the fracture without directly visualizing the fracture. know as?

This type of treatment is performed when the physician repairs the fracture without directly visualizing the fracture. know as? Answer: Closed...

Why is CPT ever changing

Why is CPT ever changing Answer: to reflect technological advances and editorial revision...

HCPCS stands for

HCPCS stands for Answer: Healthcare Common Procedural Coding Syste...

The CPT coding system was first developed by and published by

The CPT coding system was first developed by and published by Answer: american medical association (AMA) in 196...

Why is it important to report the correct coding ?

Why is it important to report the correct coding ? Answer: During coding because incorrect coding can result in being reimbursed incorrectly...

Category 2 codes are

Category 2 codes are Answer: optional performance measure...

The majority of CPT codes that have been approved by the editorial panel of the AMA are

The majority of CPT codes that have been approved by the editorial panel of the AMA are Answer: category I code...

What does CPT stand for

What does CPT stand for Answer: current procedural terminolog...

Name two types of code in CPT ?

Name two types of code in CPT ? Answer: stand alone and indente...

What does each section of the CPT manual include

What does each section of the CPT manual include Answer: guideline...

What is the policy if you cannot identify the service provided

What is the policy if you cannot identify the service provided Answer: it is not appropriate to approximat...

What section of CPT has a range of codes from 10021-69990

What section of CPT has a range of codes from 10021-69990 Answer: surger...

There are 6 sections to CPT name each one in order

There are 6 sections to CPT name each one in order Evaluation and Management Anesthesia Surgery Radiology Pathology and Lab Medicine...

What appendix identifies an add on code with a + symbol ?

What appendix identifies an add on code with a + symbol ? Answer: appendix...

The pound symbol # appears before what type of code

The pound symbol # appears before what type of code Answer: resequenced cod...

A triangle placed in front of the code indicated

A triangle placed in front of the code indicated Answer: modified or change...

How are a range of codes displayed in the alphabetic index

How are a range of codes displayed in the alphabetic index Answer: hyphe...

How are multiple codes found in the alphabetic index and how will they be displayed

How are multiple codes found in the alphabetic index and how will they be displayed Answer: code numbers are displayed in the CPT index...

Where should we first go to locate the correct procedure or service code

Where should we first go to locate the correct procedure or service code Answer: inde...

When must special reports accompany submitting of claims

When must special reports accompany submitting of claims Answer: when an unusual new seldom used or category I unlisted code or category...

What are category III codes

What are category III codes Answer: temporary code...

Generally an unlisted procedure code will end with

Generally an unlisted procedure code will end with Answer: ...

How can procedure or service not in the CPT manual be coded

How can procedure or service not in the CPT manual be coded Answer: unlisted procedure if no code is found in categories I II and II...

How is a modifier identified or appended ?

How is a modifier identified or appended ? Answer: modifiers maybe two number two letters or a number and a letter that is appended to the basic...

What do modifiers provide

What do modifiers provide Answer: additional information to the third party payer about services provided to a patien...

What are the many uses of documentation in the medical record

What are the many uses of documentation in the medical record evaluation, communication, reimbursement claims, review of the use of the healthcare...

What are the 3 key components used in correctly locating a CPT code

What are the 3 key components used in correctly locating a CPT code history, examination and medical decision making (MDM)....

What is the difference between initial and subsequent ?

What is the difference between initial and subsequent ? Answer: Initial is a new patient in a hospital setting and subsequent is an established...

What is the definition of a established patient ?

What is the definition of a established patient Answer: one who has received professional services from a physician or another of the exact...

What is the definition of a new patient

What is the definition of a new patient Answer: one who has not received professional services from a physician or another of the exact...

What are the two HCPCS levels of codes

What are the two HCPCS levels of codes HCPCS Level I codes are CPT codes that define what happened HCPCS level II codes are national codes which...

List some of the basic location methods for finding a CPT codes in the alphabetic index

List some of the basic location methods for finding a CPT codes in the alphabetic index service or procedure, anatomic site, condition or disease, synonym...

What does MDM stand for and what does it mean

What does MDM stand for and what does it mean Answer: Medical decision making is based on the complexity of the decision the physician must make...

When can counseling only be considered a component of an E/M code

When can counseling only be considered a component of an E/M code Answer: only when counseling is the reason for the encounter or consumes...

What are the contributing factor components of an E/M

What are the contributing factor components of an E/M Code counseling, Coordination of care and Nature of present problem and time....

What two key components in your E/M section have the same result

What two key components in your E/M section have the same result Answer: history and examination level...

HPI is

HPI is Answer: a chronological description of the development of the patient's present illness from the first sign and/or symptom or from...

ROS (Review of systems) is

ROS (Review of systems) is Answer: an inventory of body systems obtained through a series of questions seeking to identify signs and/or...

CC is

CC is Answer: a concise statement describing the symptom problem condition diagnosis physician recommended return or other factor that is...

There are 4 elements of the history what are they ?

There are 4 elements of the history what are they ? Chief Complaint (CC) History of present illness (HPI) Review of systems (ROS) Past family...

What type of information is part of the history?

What type of information is part of the history? Answer: Subjective information the patient tells the physicia...

What is a referral?

What is a referral? A total transfer of the care of the patien...

A consultant is

A consultant is Answer: the physician giving advice is providing a consultatio...

What is a consultation?

What is a consultation? Answer: A type of visi...

What is the difference between Initial and Subsequent Hospital care?

What is the difference between Initial and Subsequent Hospital care? Answer: Initial hospital care reports the initial service of admission...

Hospital inpatient services are divided into two sub headings, what are they?

Hospital inpatient services are divided into two sub headings, what are they? Initial hospital care. Subsequent hospital care and discharge...

During a hospitalization the attending physician is

During a hospitalization the attending physician is Answer: legally responsible for the care and treatment provided to a patient during...

What are the services in the Observation subsection in E/M used to report

What are the services in the Observation subsection in E/M used to report Observation code discharge services Initial observation care services Subsequent...

Hospital Observation Services is a subsection in E/M and observation status is used for

Hospital Observation Services is a subsection in E/M and observation status is used for Answer: the classification of a patient who does...

How does Physician Standby Services of E/M work?

How does Physician Standby Services of E/M work? Answer: When a physician at the request of another physician is standby in case his or...

When should you use the Prolong Services subsection of E/M?

When should you use the Prolong Services subsection of E/M? Answer: Intended to be used only in addition to other codes to show an extension...

When should you use the Home Services subsection of E/M?

When should you use the Home Services subsection of E/M? Answer: When a patient receives health care services in their hom...

When should you use Domiciliary, Rest Home, or Custodial Care Services of E/M

When should you use Domiciliary, Rest Home, or Custodial Care Services of E/M Answer: Residents who reside in a domiciliary, rest home,...

Name the 4 subheadings of nursing facility services

Name the 4 subheadings of nursing facility services Initial Nursing Facility Care. Subsequent Nursing Facility Care. Nursing Facility Discharge...

What type of care does a patient receive in a skilled nursing facility?

What type of care does a patient receive in a skilled nursing facility? Answer: Patients require less care than that given in an acute care...

ED service codes NOT assigned

ED service codes NOT assigned Answer: for patients at the hospital on observation status even if the observation is located in or near the...

Emergency Dept. service codes are assigned:

Emergency Dept. service codes are assigned: Answer: For new or established patients when services are provided in an ED that is part of...

What defines a pediatric patient?

What defines a pediatric patient? Answer: 2 days through 24 months of age to 2 years through 5 year...

What defines a neonate?

What defines a neonate? Answer: 28 days or younge...

When are Pediatric Critical Patient Transport codes reported?

When are Pediatric Critical Patient Transport codes reported? Answer: Face to face services to a pediatric patient 24 months or younge...

What are Preventative Services considered ?

What are Preventative Services considered ? Answer: routine servic...

VLBW stands

VLBW stands Answer: for very low birth weight less than 3.3 poun...

LBW stands

LBW stands Answer: for Low birth weight 3.3-5.50 poun...

What is a normal birth weight?

What is a normal birth weight? Answer: 5.51-11.01 poun...

What do status offenses consist of?

What do status offenses consist of? A. running away from home B. truancy from school C. violating curfew D. all of the above Answer: D. All of...

Who is the bulk of crimes committed by?

Who is the bulk of crimes committed by? A. Adolescents B. Elderly C. Adults Answer: A. Adolescen...

We are not all criminals in a broad sense.

We are not all criminals in a broad sense. Answer: Fal...

Our thinking determines both our emotions and our actions T/F

Our thinking determines both our emotions and our actions T/F Answer: Tr...

How do you change a distressing event?

How do you change a distressing event? A. Directly confront the situation and take constructive action to change the situation B. Not all distressing...

How many parts does RAS have?

How many parts does RAS have? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 Answer: C....

What was the main goal of Maultsby approach?

What was the main goal of Maultsby approach? A. Changing self-talk B. Change unwanted emotion C. Demonstrate the difference between sane and insane...

All of these are ways to change an unwanted emotion EXCEPT

All of these are ways to change an unwanted emotion EXCEPT A. Changing the negative and irrational thinking that underlines the unwanted emotion B....

According to the rational therapy approach, all emotions occur in what format?

According to the rational therapy approach, all emotions occur in what format? A. Self-talk, emotions, events B. Self-talk, events, emotions D. Events,...

True or False. The use of medical labels has no severe adverse effects.

True or False. The use of medical labels has no severe adverse effects. Answer: Fal...

David Rosenhan set out to demonstrate what?

David Rosenhan set out to demonstrate what? A. That emotionally disturbed people were possessed by demons B. That emotional and behavioral problems...

Who was one of the first authorities to assert that mental illness was a myth; that it does not exist?

Who was one of the first authorities to assert that mental illness was a myth; that it does not exist? A. Albert Ellis B. David Rosenhan C. Thomas...

True or False. It's okay for anorexics and bulimics who enter treatment to be treated for their eating habits and still desire to be very thin.

True or False. It's okay for anorexics and bulimics who enter treatment to be treated for their eating habits and still desire to be very thin.&nbs...

Which of these is a similarity between anorexics and bulimics?

Which of these is a similarity between anorexics and bulimics? A. Possessing an obsessive concern with food B. Probably had overprotective parents...

Which is NOT a characteristic of Compulsive Overeating?

Which is NOT a characteristic of Compulsive Overeating? A. a response to a combination of familial, psychological, cultural, and environmental factors B....

Which is NOT a characteristic of Bulimia Nervosa?

Which is NOT a characteristic of Bulimia Nervosa? A. Derived from a Greek word meaning "ox-like hunger B. The rapid, uncontrolled consumption of large...

Which is NOT a characteristic of Anorexia Nervosa?

Which is NOT a characteristic of Anorexia Nervosa? A. the process of getting rid of the food eaten during a binge B. The refusal and acceptance of...

Which of the following is NOT an eating disorder?

Which of the following is NOT an eating disorder? A. Bulimia Nervosa B. Anorexia Nervosa C. Hypheragia Nervosa D. Compulsive overeating Answer: C....

Which is not a stage of the ability of youth?

Which is not a stage of the ability of youth? A. understanding powerlessness B. awareness and mutual education C. dialogue and solidarity D. action...

Responsive independence involves progressing from emotional dependence on parents or others to increased independence while still being able to maintain close emotional ties.

Responsive independence involves progressing from emotional dependence on parents or others to increased independence while still being able to maintain...

Children who have overly protective parents have difficulty making the transition into an adult; they usually do not learn how to assume responsibilities or make important decisions.

Children who have overly protective parents have difficulty making the transition into an adult; they usually do not learn how to assume responsibilities...

Nocturnal emissions are more common in females

Nocturnal emissions are more common in females T/F Answer: Fal...

are those directly related to the sex organs and their direct role in reproduction; ____________ are the traits that distinguish genders but have no direct role in reproduction.

___________ are those directly related to the sex organs and their direct role in reproduction; ______________ are the traits that distinguish genders...

_____ is the transitional period between childhood and adulthood during which young people mature physically and sexually.

_____ is the transitional period between childhood and adulthood during which young people mature physically and sexually. A. puberty B. adolescence C....