_____ is the treatment provided by a physician to a patient for the purpose of preventing, diagnosing, or treating an illness, injury, or its symptoms in a manner which is appropriate and is provided in accordance with generally accepted standards of medical practice.

_____ is the treatment provided by a physician to a patient for the purpose of preventing, diagnosing, or treating an illness, injury, or its symptoms in a manner which is appropriate and is provided in accordance with generally accepted standards of medical practice.

Answer: Medical necessity.

A ______ is a document that specifies the amount the payer agrees to pay the provider for a service, based on a contracted rate of reimbursement.

A ______ is a document that specifies the amount the payer agrees to pay the provider for a service, based on a contracted rate of reimbursement.

Answer: Payment schedule.

A ______ is an electronic document that lists patients, dates of services, charges, and the amount paid or denied by the insurance carrier.

A ______ is an electronic document that lists patients, dates of services, charges, and the amount paid or denied by the insurance carrier.

Answer: Electronic Remittance Advice (ERA).

Once locating claims and filters have been applied, only claims that _______.

Once locating claims and filters have been applied, only claims that _______.

Answer: match the criteria are listed at the bottom of the main claim management dialog box.

The document needed to enter charge transactions in Medisoft is a _________.

The document needed to enter charge transactions in Medisoft is a _________.

Answer: patients encounter form.

A sworn in verbal testimony is called

A sworn in verbal testimony is called 

Answer: deposition.

What type of person must function under direct supervision of a physician ?

What type of person must function under direct supervision of a physician ?

Answer: non-licensed employee.

Define the Geneva convention ?

Define the Geneva convention ?

Answer: It refers to colleagues as brothers and states that religion, race, and other such factors are not a consideration for care of the total person; allows the care for all.

Out of the 4 categories of employees list which two are voluntary and which one is mandatory ?

Out of the 4 categories of employees list which two are voluntary and which one is mandatory ?

Answer:

1. certification and registration are voluntary
2. license is mandatory

Name the 3 branches of government ?

Name the 3 branches of government 

1. legislative: enact
2. executive: enforce
3. judicial: interpret

City curfews fall under what type of law ?

City curfews fall under what type of law 

Answer: Ordinances.

When the constitution guarantees citizens the right to be left alone, to make decisions about ones body and to control one's own information is called

When the constitution guarantees citizens the right to be left alone, to make decisions about ones body and to control one's own information is called 

Answer: right to privacy.

Defamation is what type of law ?

Defamation is what type of law ?

Answer: Intentional torts.

Insurance fraud is what type of law ?

Insurance fraud is what type of law ?

Answer: Malfeasance.

What does private law consists of consists of ?

What does private law consists of consists of ?

Answer: the body of rules and principles that govern the rights and duties between private parties.

What law does not deal with criminal law ?

What law does not deal with criminal law ?

Answer: Civil Law

What law is large segment of criminal law ?

What law is large segment of criminal law ?

Answer: Public law.

What does federal jurisdiction refer to ?

What does federal jurisdiction refer to ?

Answer: state cases that take place on federal grounds.

Name the care the requires a doctor to use ordinary and reasonable skills when caring for a patient ?

Name the care the requires a doctor to use ordinary and reasonable skills when caring for a patient ?

Answer: Standards of Care.

Who is a defendant ?

Who is a defendant ?

Answer: The person or group accused in a court of action.

What are the first 10 amendments referred to as

What are the first 10 amendments referred to as 

Answer: Bill of Right.

Define Constitution ?

Define Constitution ?

The fundamental law of a nation or state, establishes the basis principles, must conform, organize the branches of government and limits the function of different departments.

Define Diversity Jurisdiction ?

Define Diversity Jurisdiction ?

Answer: Cases involving parties who are citizens of different states and the amount in controversies is over $50k.

Define Partnership ?

Define Partnership ?

Answer: Type of business management involving two or more individuals who are co-owners of the business.

Name the code of ethics that is a result of WWII war criminals and made provisions guidelines for safe human experimentation

Name the code of ethics that is a result of WWII war criminals and made provisions guidelines for safe human experimentation 

Answer: Nuremberg Code.

A business that is owned by a single individual who receives all profit and takes all the risk is called

A business that is owned by a single individual who receives all profit and takes all the risk is called 

Answer: sole proprietorship

Laws that are passed or regulated at a local level is called

Laws that are passed or regulated at a local level is called 

Answer: Ordinances.

What government branch enforces law?

What government branch enforces law? 

Answer: Executive Branch.

What is an updated guideline for human experimentation ?

What is an updated guideline for human experimentation ?

Answer: declaration of helsinki

A set of morals standards of right/wrong behaviors that govern individual interactions with others and with society is called

A set of morals standards of right/wrong behaviors that govern individual interactions with others and with society is called

Answer:  ethics.

Name the code of ethics that states a standard care is directed toward office and clinical assisting ?

Name the code of ethics that states a standard care is directed toward office and clinical assisting ?

Answer: Medical assistance code of ethics.

A type of practice that has shared investments and where more people will be involved in the patient's care is called

A type of practice that has shared investments and where more people will be involved in the patient's care is called 

Answer: group practice.

Define the controlled substance act ?

Define the controlled substance act ?

Answer: Federal law regulating the administration dispensing and prescribing medications.

What government branch enacts the laws ?

What government branch enacts the laws ?

Answer: Legislative Branch

What is known as pre-trial investigation ?

What is known as pre-trial investigation ?

Answer: Discovery.

What government branch interprets law ?

What government branch interprets law ?

Answer: Judicial Branch.

Name the 4 categories of employees within a medical office ?

Name the 4 categories of employees within a medical office ?

Answer:

1. certification
2. registration
3. licensed and
4. unlicensed

Name two types of liabilities ?

Name two types of liabilities ? 

Answer: Criminal and Civil.

What type of medical practice management is: a group of medical providers who organize and agree to provide medical care and treatment to clients?

What type of medical practice management is: a group of medical providers who organize and agree to provide medical care and treatment to clients? 

Answer: Group practice.

Name 5 code of ethics that a medical assistant will strive to maintain ?

Name 5 code of ethics that a medical assistant will strive to maintain ?

Answer:

1. Dignity,
2. Loyalty to the employer,
3. Privacy,
4. Aspire to render greater service,
5. Seek to improve knowledge and skills of medical assistance for the benefit of patients and professional colleagues

What states the goals of a group in terms of how a business operates and how it will treat customers and competitors ?

What states the goals of a group in terms of how a business operates and how it will treat customers and competitors ?

Answer: Code of ethics.

Name 3 types of group practice ?

Name 3 types of group practice ?

Answer: 

1. Single specialty.
2. Multispecialty.
3. Primary care group

What code of ethic law allows for care of all ?

What code of ethic law allows for care of all ?

Answer: Geneva convention code of ethics.

When can the administrative procedure act make decisions ?

When can the administrative procedure act make decisions ?

Answer: Under the administrative procedure act, agencies may not make decisions until:

1. They give notice.
2. Allow affected parties the opportunity to present arguments for or against the proposed action.
3. Provide a public record of the action.

What type of law is a conflict between the government and private parties ?

What type of law is a conflict between the government and private parties ?

Answer: Public Law.

What type of consent is assumed based on fact or law ?

What type of consent is assumed based on fact or law ?

Answer: Implied Consent.

The right of a court to hear and decide a case is ?

The right of a court to hear and decide a case is ?

Answer: Jurisdiction.

Pertaining to court procedures who is the party that initiates a lawsuit ?

Pertaining to court procedures who is the party that initiates a lawsuit ?

Answer: Plaintiff.

Pertaining to court procedures who is the party that is being sued ?

Pertaining to court procedures who is the party that is being sued ?

Answer: defendant.

How are drugs controlled ?

How are drugs controlled ?

Answer: Drugs are controlled due to their potential for abuse.

Controlled substances are categorized into how many schedules ?

Controlled substances are categorized into how many schedules ?

Answer: 5 schedules.

What does medical specialization enhance ?

What does medical specialization enhance ?

Answer: the quality of care.

What branch of government enforces the law ?

What branch of government enforces the law ?

Answer: Executive branch.

Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the strongest form of regulation ?

Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the strongest form of regulation ?

Answer: License

Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the most common form of regulation ?

Out of the 4 categories of employees, what is the most common form of regulation ?

Answer: Certification.

Private Law is also called ?

Private Law is also called ? 

Answer: Civil Law.

Name four Criminal Liabilities ?

Name four Criminal Liabilities Are: 

1. Insurance Fraud
2. Client/Child Abuse
3. Breach of Controlled Substance Act
4. Negligence

T/F: registration and certification is voluntary, where licensure is mandatory

T/F: registration and certification is voluntary, where licensure is mandatory 

Answer: True

What are the four categories of employees? is licensure the strongest form of regulation?

What are the four categories of employees? is licensure the strongest form of regulation? 

Answer:

1. Certification
2. Registration
3. License: 

Yes, licensure is the strongest form of regulation.

What is bonding ?

What is bonding ? 

Answer: An insurance contract by which a bonding agreement guarantees payment of a specified sum to an employee in the event of a financial loss to the employer caused by the act of a specified employee, a legal obligation to pay specific sums.

What is a joint venture?

What is a joint venture? 

Answer: A type of business management formed by hospitals, physicians, and other providers, and clinics to offer client care and can be profitable.

What is a major advantage of being part of a group practice?

What is a major advantage of being part of a group practice? 

Answer: A shared financial investment for diagnostic and therapeutic equipment, the opportunity for consultation with other providers, little administrative responsibility, and more family and recreation time.

What two type of reimbursement do group practice operate on?

What two type of reimbursement do group practice operate on?

Answer:

1. fee for service or
2. point of service reimbursement

What is a group practice?

What is a group practice?

Answer: Type of business management in which three or more individuals organize to render professional service and share the same equipment and personnel.

What kind of medical group consist of licensed individuals who organize together to render professional services to the people?

What kind of medical group consist of licensed individuals who organize together to render professional services to the people? 

Answer: Professional service corporation.

What are some advantages vs. disadvantages of a partnership?

What are some advantages vs. disadvantages of a partnership? 

Answer:

• Advantages: easily recognized, bring additional managerial skills, share the workload.
• Disadvantages: two or more people make the decision depend on contract agreement, and is responsible for the business if one slacks off the other will have to make up for the deficit.

What kind of practice is an association of two or more people who are co-owners of a business, for profit?

What kind of practice is an association of two or more people who are co-owners of a business, for profit? 

Answer: Partnership

What are some advantages vs. disadvantages to sole proprietorship?

What are some advantages vs. disadvantages to sole proprietorship? 

Answer:

• Advantages: take all profit, being one's own boss, lower organization cost.
• Disadvantages: takes all the risk, put out all money, personal money can be at risk.

In medical practice management, a single practitioner is considered what?

In medical practice management, a single practitioner is considered what? 

Answer: Sole Proprietorship

What 3 questions have been developed to aid in determination of ethics/ethical judgment on behalf of the medical assistant?

What 3 questions have been developed to aid in determination of ethics/ethical judgment on behalf of the medical assistant? 

Answer:

1. Is it legal or in accordance with institutional or company policy?
2. Does it promote a win-win situation with as many individuals (client/employee/employer) as possible?
3. How would I feel about myself if i read about my decision or action in the daily newspaper? How would my family feel? Could I look at myself in the mirror?

Will medical specialization enhance the quality of health care? Can it increase the cost of health care? Why or why not?

Will medical specialization enhance the quality of health care? Can it increase the cost of health care? Why or why not? 

Answer: Medical specialization does enhance the quality of health care and can increase the cost with the coordination of clients to benefit.

What is another term for "moral issues and problems that have risen as a result of modern medicine?"

What is another term for "moral issues and problems that have risen as a result of modern medicine?" 

Answer: Bioethics.

What does the Medical Assistant Code of Ethics strive to maintain by those who undertake the oath?

What does the Medical Assistant Code of Ethics strive to maintain by those who undertake the oath? 

Answer: They will strive to maintain dignity, privacy, and loyalty to the employer.

Why is the Nuremberg Code important in regards to human experimentation?

Why is the Nuremberg Code important in regards to human experimentation? 

Answer: Established as a results of the trials of WWII war criminals and human experimentation had to be safe.

What does the Geneva Convention entail?

What does the Geneva Convention entail? 

Answer: States that religion, race, and other factors are not a consideration for care of the total person, allows for the care of all.

T/F: Professional code of ethics is established by a group of professionals and they define how members of that profession should behave.

T/F: Professional code of ethics is established by a group of professionals and they define how members of that profession should behave.

Answer: True

What is the difference between Law and code of ethics ?

What is the difference between Law and code of ethics ?

Answer: Law is societal rules of regulations that are advisable or obligatory to observe whereas code of ethics states goals in terms of how a business operates and how it will treat customers and competitors

ACA Stands for

ACA  Stands for

Affordable Care Act 

HITECH Stands for

HITECH  Stands for

Answer: Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act 

MMDDCCYY format Stands for

MMDDCCYY format  Stands for

Answer: Medisoft Program Date

EDI Stands for

EDI  Stands for

Answer: Electronic Data Interchange

EOB Stands for

EOB  Stands for

Answer: Explanation of Benefits 

NPI Stands for

NPI  Stands for

Answer: National Provider Identifier

HIT Stands for

HIT  Stands for

Answer: Health Information Technology 

EHR Stands for

EHR Stands for

Answer: Electronic Health Record 

HIPAA Stands for

HIPAA Stands for

Answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 

RA Stands for

RA Stands for

Answer: Remittance Advice 

PMPs Stands for

PMPs Stands for

Answer: Practice Management Programs 

PHR Stands for

PHR Stands for

Answer: Personal Health Record

The document explaining the results of the adjudication process is called a remittance advice or _____ generated by a payer to a provider.

The document explaining the results of the adjudication process is called a remittance advice or _____ generated by a payer to a provider.

Answer: Explanation of benefits (EOB)

When a claim is received by a payer, it is reviewed following a process known as adjudication, this is ______.

When a claim is received by a payer, it is reviewed following a process known as adjudication, this is ______.

Answer:  a series of steps designed to judge whether it should be paid.

The _____ regulates the protection of individually identifiable information about a patient's health and payment for healthcare that is created or received by a healthcare provider.

The _____ regulates the protection of individually identifiable information about a patient's health and payment for healthcare that is created or received by a healthcare provider.

Answer: HIPAA Privacy Rule

Default time slots in Office Hours is in

Default time slots in Office Hours is in 

Answer: 15 minute slots per appointment.

The Office Hours calendar is used to _________.

The Office Hours calendar is used to _________. 

Answer: Select or change dates.

_____ is a report that traces who has accessed patient information, when it was accessed, and if any information was altered in any way.

_____ is a report that traces who has accessed patient information, when it was accessed, and if any information was altered in any way. 

Answer: Breach Notification Report/audit trail

The _______ protects individually identifiable information about a patient's health and payment for healthcare that is created or received by a healthcare provider.

The _______ protects individually identifiable information about a patient's health and payment for healthcare that is created or received by a healthcare provider.

Answer: HIPAA Privacy Rule.

Security Standards consist of 3 categories _____

Security Standards consist of 3 categories _______, ________, _________. 

Answer:

1. Administrative - Management is assigned to one person
2. Physical - Threats include hackers, disgruntled employees, or angry patients. Unauthorized intrusion is access by individuals who do not have a "need to know"
3. Technical - access is granted on a "need to know" basis. Passwords are designed to allow customized access

Pre-registering patients is Step 1 in the Billing Cycle. This consist of gather the following information before the office visit such as __

Pre-registering patients is Step 1 in the Billing Cycle. This consist of gather the following information before the office visit such as _________ 

• Name
• Contact information
• Address and
• Phone number

The _________ contains a number of rules, including:

The _________ contains a number of rules, including:

-HIPAA Electronic Transaction and COde Sets standards
-HIPAA Privacy Rule
-HIPAA Security Rule
-File Enforcement Rule

Answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) 

Step 3 of the Billing Cycle is ________. This consists of having the patient complete patient information form, verifying identity by photocopying or scanning the patient's insurance card and photo ID.

Step 3 of the Billing Cycle is ________. This consists of having the patient complete patient information form, verifying identity by photocopying or scanning the patient's insurance card and photo ID.

Answer: Checking in Patients 

Office Hours contains Four main areas:

Office Hours contains Four main areas:

• Provider Selection Box
• Provider's Daily Schedule
• Office Hours Calendar
• Office Hours Patient Information 

To search for a future appointment in Office Hours, use the _______

To search for a future appointment in Office Hours, use the _______

Answer: Go to a Date shortcut button on the toolbar 

An ______ is a computerized lifelong healthcare record for an individual that incorporates data from all providers who treat the individual.

An ______ is a computerized lifelong healthcare record for an individual that incorporates data from all providers who treat the individual.

Answer: Electronic Health Record (EHR)

_____ is a copy of data made at a specific time, it can be used to restore data.

_____ is a copy of data made at a specific time, it can be used to restore data.

Answer: Backup data

The _____ is a federal legislation that includes provisions designed to increase access to healthcare, improve the quality of healthcare, and explore new models of delivering and paying for healthcare.

The _____ is a federal legislation that includes provisions designed to increase access to healthcare, improve the quality of healthcare, and explore new models of delivering and paying for healthcare.

Answer: Affordable Care Act 

The ______ provides financial incentives to physicians and hospitals to adopt EHRs and strengthens HIPAA privacy and security regulations.

The ______ provides financial incentives to physicians and hospitals to adopt EHRs and strengthens HIPAA privacy and security regulations.

Answer: Health information technology for economic and clinical health act.

Medisoft is a practice management program that consist of a database a _____

Medisoft is a practice management program that consist of a database a _____

Answer: Collection of related bits of information .

An encounter form is a ______

An encounter form is a ______ 

Answer: list of procedures and diagnoses for a patient's visits.

HIPAA Privacy Requirements Rule mandates that _______.

HIPAA Privacy Requirements Rule mandates that _______. 

• Notify Patients
• Train Employees
• Appoint a Staff Member
• Secure Patient Records

An ____ is a report that traces who has accessed electronic information, when information was accessed and whether any information was changed.

An ____ is a report that traces who has accessed electronic information, when information was accessed and whether any information was changed.

Answer: Audit Trail

___ is when the system empties the information from the record but keeps the empty slot in the database so it is available when new data needs to be entered in the system.

____ is when the system empties the information from the record but keeps the empty slot in the database so it is available when new data needs to be entered in the system.

Answer: Purging Data

___ are used in a variety of different medical facilities where medical offices have capabilities such as EHRs, streamline billing, scheduling, and other administrative and financial tasks.

________ are used in a variety of different medical facilities where medical offices have capabilities such as EHRs, streamline billing, scheduling, and other administrative and financial tasks.

Answer: Practice Management Program

The ______ feature with Medisoft automatically logs the user off due to inactivity.

The ______ feature with Medisoft automatically logs the user off due to inactivity.

Answer: Auto Log Off

A ______ is a unique number that identifies a patient. this links all information about a patient.

A ______ is a unique number that identifies a patient. this links all information about a patient.

Answer: chart number

___ is the process of updating balances to reflect the most recent changes made to the data.

______ is the process of updating balances to reflect the most recent changes made to the data.

Answer: Recalculating balances

The _______ is a ten position numerical identifier consisting of all numbers.

The _______ is a ten position numerical identifier consisting of all numbers.

Answer:  National Provider Identifier (NPI)

The electronic transmission of data is called

The electronic transmission of data is called 

Answer: Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)

What are other two services are not in in the need of an E/M code?

What are other two services are not in in the need of an E/M code? 

1. Chemotherapy
2. Dialysis

Why do infusions not need an E/M code?

Why do infusions not need an E/M code? 

Answer: Prolonged intravenous injections.

If the _______ service that was provided was an _______ you do not report an E/M code.

If the _______ service that was provided was an _______ you do not report an E/M code. 

Answer:
-only
-injection

True or False: If a patient is given a vaccine in the course of an E/M service, then the administration code is reported second then the vaccine in addition to the E/M code. If False, why?

True or False: If a patient is given a vaccine in the course of an E/M service, then the administration code is reported second then the vaccine in addition to the E/M code. If False, why? 

Answer: False, the administration code is reported first.

What are part of Medicine in the dialysis subsection

What are part of Medicine in the dialysis subsection 

Answer:
-chemotherapy
-infusion

The dialysis subsection of the Medicine section is divided into what

The dialysis subsection of the Medicine section is divided into what

Answer:  types of dialysis.

What does it mean when dialysis may be permanent ?

What does it mean when dialysis may be permanent ?

Answer: The case of a patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who will not recover without a kidney transplant.

What does it mean when dialysis may be temporary

What does it mean when dialysis may be temporary 

Answer: the case of a patient who has acute renal failure from which he or she recovers.

What is dialysis ?

What is dialysis ?

Answer: the cleansing of the blood of waste products when it is not possible for the body to perform the cleansing function adequately on its own.

If a patient is given a vaccines in the course of an E/M service what code would you assign with the administration and vaccine/toxoids codes

If a patient is given a vaccines in the course of an E/M service what code would you assign with the administration and vaccine/toxoids codes 

Answer: E/M code

How do most payers want you to report the administration codes

How do most payers want you to report the administration codes 

Answer: use the "times" symbol (X) to indicate the number of injections given.

What modifier should NOT be reported for the vaccines/toxoids when performed with administration procedures

What modifier should NOT be reported for the vaccines/toxoids when performed with administration procedures 

Answer: 51 multiple codes.

The vaccine toxoids subsection codes report

The vaccine toxoids subsection codes report 

Answer: vaccine products for immunizations.

In many of the code description what are identified

In many of the code description what are identified 

Answer: specific ages.

What do codes 90471-90474 report ?

What do codes 90471-90474 report ? 

Answer: Immunizations at which the physician did NOT provide counseling for patients of any age including patients through age 18.

For vaccines with multiple components (combined vaccines) what would you report ?

For vaccines with multiple components (combined vaccines) what would you report ?

Answer: Report 90460 in conjunction with 90461 for additional component in the vaccine.

What code should you report for each vaccine administrated

What code should you report for each vaccine administrated 

Answer: Report code 90460.

Codes 90460-90461 report what ?

Codes 90460-90461 report what ?

Answer: Immunizations administered for patients through age 18 and for which counseling has been provided to the patient's family regarding the vaccine/toxoid.

Report each dose administered as

Report each dose administered as 

Answer: Single or combination with the appropriate administration code.

The administration codes are divided based on the _______ of administration and in some codes, the patient ____, and when administered with __________.

The administration codes are divided based on the _______ of administration and in some codes, the patient ____, and when administered with __________. 

Answer:
-method
-age
-physician counseling

What are the variety of methods that are utilized to deliver the vaccine/toxoid :

What are the variety of methods that are utilized to deliver the vaccine/toxoid :

1. percutaneous
2. intradermal
3. subcutaneous
4. intramuscular 
5. intranasal
6. oral

Immunization reporting requires 2 codes:

Immunization reporting requires 2 codes: 

1. one to report the administration
2. one to report the substance administered

The immunization administration codes (90460-90474) are reported in conjunction with

The immunization administration codes (90460-90474) are reported in conjunction with 

Answer: vaccines toxoids subsection codes (90476-90749).

The codes in this subsection identify only the immune globulin ________ and must be reported with the appropriate ________________code.

The codes in this subsection identify only the immune globulin ________ and must be reported with the appropriate ________________code.

Answer:

The codes in this subsection identify only the immune globulin product and must be reported with the appropriate administration code.

The immune globulins are passive immunization agents obtained from

The immune globulins are passive immunization agents obtained from 

Answer: Pooled human plasma that is immune to a particular disease.

The first 3 subsections in the Medicine section are

The first 3 subsections in the Medicine section are

1. Immune globulins serum recombinant products,
2. Immunization administration for vaccine/toxoids and
3. Vaccine toxoids.

Active immunization is

Active immunization is 

Answer: The type given when it is anticipated that the person will be in contact with the disease. they can also be toxoids and vaccines.

There are two types of immunizations what are they

There are two types of immunizations what are they ? What are the two types of immunizations? Also list the definition for both.

1. active 
2. passive

Active: type given when it is anticipated that the person will be in contact with the disease.

Passive: does not cause an immune response; rather, the injection material a high level of antibodies against a disease called immune globulins.

The section begins with subsection information and guidelines applicable to all of the Medicine section codes such as

The section begins with subsection information and guidelines applicable to all of the Medicine section codes such as 

Answer:

• add-on codes
• separate procedures
• unlisted service/procedure
• special reports
• supplied materials

The medicine section 90281-99607 report diagnostic and therapeutic services that are generally _____ (not entering a body cavity), but there are also ______ (entering the body cavity) procedures done in the section, such as cardiac catheterization.

The medicine section 90281-99607 report diagnostic and therapeutic services that are generally _____ (not entering a body cavity), but there are also ______ (entering the body cavity) procedures done in the section, such as cardiac catheterization.

Answer:
-noninvasive
-invasive

What causes pernicious anemia ?

What causes pernicious anemia ?

Answer: Deficiency in vitamin B.

Donating your own blood before a surgery is called

Donating your own blood before a surgery is called 

Answer: Autologous.

What does the term attenuation mean

What does the term attenuation mean 

Answer: weakened with heat or chemicals.

How many type of WBCs are there and what are they

How many type of WBCs are there and what are they

1. Neutrophils, 
2. Basophils, 
3. Eosinophils, 
4. Monocytes, and
5. Lymphocytes.

A decrease in WBCs below 5000 is called

A decrease in WBCs below 5000 is called 

Answer: Leukopenia.

Which lymphoid tissue removes harmful things that are swallowed or inhaled

Which lymphoid tissue removes harmful things that are swallowed or inhaled 

Answer: Tonsils.

The process of WBCs engulfing foreign particles is called

The process of WBCs engulfing foreign particles is called

Answer:  Phagocytosis.

What are the formed elements of of the blood

What are the formed elements of of the blood 

1. Erythrocytes leukocytes 
2. Platelets, thrombocytes

The total volume of blood in an average adult is approximately

The total volume of blood in an average adult is approximately 

Answer: 5 Quarts.

What does the term anastomoses means ?

What does the term anastomoses means ?

Answer: Communication between two structures like blood vessels.

Name the substances that are produced by the B-lymphocytes that target specific foreign invaders

Name the substances that are produced by the B-lymphocytes that target specific foreign invaders 

Answer: Antibodies.

The volume % if red blood cells in whole blood is known as

The volume % if red blood cells in whole blood is known as 

Answer: Hematocrit.

What are platelets released by ?

What are platelets released by ?

Answer: megakaryocytes.

What is the main component in plasma ?

What is the main component in plasma ? 

Answer: Water 91%.

What is Hemostasis ?

What is Hemostasis ?

Answer: Process that prevents blood loss from the circulation when a blood vessel is ruptured by an injury.

What is immunization/vaccine ?

What is immunization/vaccine ?

Answer: A harmful agent treated to reduce its virulence before being administered.

What is an Allergy ?

What is an Allergy ?

Answer: Reacting to certain substances that would be harmless to most people.

Which vessels carry dark red deoxygenated blood ?

Which vessels carry dark red deoxygenated blood ?

Answer: Veins.

What is the medical term for the rupture of RBCs ?

What is the medical term for the rupture of RBCs ?

Answer: Hemolysis.

What are varicose veins ?

What are varicose veins ?

Answer: Superficial veins that have become swollen distorted and ineffective.

What are the symptoms of HIV ?

What are the symptoms of HIV ?

Answer: flu-like symptoms.

Protein molecules on the surface of RBCs that react against antibodies are ?

Protein molecules on the surface of RBCs that react against antibodies are ?

Answer: Antigens.

Which vessels carry bright red oxygenated blood ?

Which vessels carry bright red oxygenated blood ?

Answer: Arteries.

What is the sequence of blood flow through the heart ?

What is the sequence of blood flow through the heart ?

Answer: Right atrium right ventricle left atrium left ventricle.

What is the medical term for removal of the tonsils ?

What is the medical term for removal of the tonsils ?

Answer: Tonsillectomy.

What does the term immunodeficiency mean ?

What does the term immunodeficiency mean ?

Answer: Any failure of the immune system.

What is pneumonia ?

What is pneumonia ?

Answer: Inflammation of the lungs.

What is autoimmunity ?

What is autoimmunity ?

Answer: Abnormal reactivity to one's own tissue.

What is sensitization ?

What is sensitization ?

Answer: the ability of a lymphocyte to identify and react to an antigen.

How is oxygen transported in the blood stream ?

How is oxygen transported in the blood stream ?

Answer: O2 attaches to the hemoglobin in RBCs.

Heart rate x stroke volume =

Heart rate x stroke volume = 

Answer: cardio output.

What is the medical term for removal of the spleen ?

What is the medical term for removal of the spleen ?

Answer: Splenectomy.

What are alveoli ?

What are alveoli ?

Answer: Clusters of tiny air sacs where gas exchange takes place.

What is hodgkin's disease ?

What is hodgkin's disease ?

Answer: Chronic malignant disease of the lymphoid tissues esp lymph nodes.

What does the term asymptomatic mean ?

What does the term asymptomatic mean ?

Answer:  Producing or showing no symptoms.

What is cheyne stokes breathing and when would you see it ?

What is cheyne stokes breathing and when would you see it ?

Answer: Variations of depth of breathing with periods of apnea seen in critically ill patients.

Where is the thymus located and what is it responsible for ?

Where is the thymus located and what is it responsible for ?

Answer: located beneath the sternum active before birth and the first few months of infancy establish immune system.

What fluids are not considered transmitters of the HIV virus even though universal precautions should still apply ?

What fluids are not considered transmitters of the HIV virus even though universal precautions should still apply ?

Answer: feces nasal secretions sputum sweat tears urine vomit.

The active phase of breathing is called ?

The active phase of breathing is called ?

Answer: Inhalation.

What are the 2 main types of immunity ?

What are the 2 main types of immunity ?

Answer: acquired and inborn.

What is the western blot test ?

What is the western blot test ?

Answer: Confirmatory test done to check the pressure of HIV proteins.

Name the ways that AIDs is transmitted ?

Name the ways that AIDs is transmitted ?

Answer: Parenteral needle sticks blood transfusions transplants iv drug use sexual intercourse in utero.

What % of venous blood is still oxygenated ?

What % of venous blood is still oxygenated ?

Answer: 70%.

What is Septicemia ?

What is Septicemia ?

Answer: Blood poisoning due to pathogens entering the bloodstream.

The medical term for rapid breathing is ?

The medical term for rapid breathing is ?

Answer: tachypnea.

What is dyspnea?

What is dyspnea?

Answer: Dyspnea is difficult of labored breathing.

What type of immunity is the passage of antibodies from mother to fetus in the uterus ?

What type of immunity is the passage of antibodies from mother to fetus in the uterus ?

Answer: Passive Immunity.

What is an antihistamine ?

What is an antihistamine ?

Answer: Medication used to block the action of histamine.

The medical term for lack of oxygen to the tissues is called ?

The medical term for lack of oxygen to the tissues is called ?

Answer: hypoxia.

What structure prevents the back flow of both blood in the veins and lymph in the lymphatic vessels ?

What structure prevents the back flow of both blood in the veins and lymph in the lymphatic vessels ?

Answer: valves.

The valve that is between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the

The valve that is between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the 

Answer: Bicuspid or mitral valve.

What is Apnea ?

What is Apnea ?

Answer: Temporary or absence of breathing.

Patients that have been exposed to a harmful organism are given a dosed of borrowed antibodies that is called ?

Patients that have been exposed to a harmful organism are given a dosed of borrowed antibodies that is called ?

Answer: Antiserum or immune serum.

What is rejection syndrome ?

What is rejection syndrome ?

Answer: The natural tendency of the body to destroy foreign substances including tissues from another person

A bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen is called ?

A bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen is called ?

Answer: Cyanosis.

What is lymphangitis ?

What is lymphangitis ?

Answer: Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels appearing as red streaks.

What is the function of an anticoagulant ?

What is the function of an anticoagulant ?

Answer: Prevents blood clots.

What are the upper chambers of the heart called ?

What are the upper chambers of the heart called ?

Answer: Atria.

What is acquired immunity ?

What is acquired immunity ?

Answer: Develops during a person's lifetime.

The double layered sac that covers the outside of the lungs and the walls of the thoracic cavity is called ?

The double layered sac that covers the outside of the lungs and the walls of the thoracic cavity is called ?

Answer: Pleura.

What is the primary or acute infection stage of HIV ?

What is the primary or acute infection stage of HIV ?

Answer: 10-14 days after initial exposure.

What is the term for enlargement of the spleen ?

What is the term for enlargement of the spleen ?

Answer: Splenomegaly.

What is the most common cause of death for a patient with AIDs ?

What is the most common cause of death for a patient with AIDs ?

Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia PCP.

If a patient has difficulty breathing unless they are in an upright position they have a condition called ?

If a patient has difficulty breathing unless they are in an upright position they have a condition called ?

Answer: Orthopnea.

What condition is caused by the blood of an Rh+ baby mixing blood of an Rh- mother ?

What condition is caused by the blood of an Rh+ baby mixing blood of an Rh- mother ?

Answer: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)

Which organs in the body are made of lymphoid tissue ?

Which organs in the body are made of lymphoid tissue ?

Answer: Tonsils spleen thymus.

What is the name of the disease in which the microscopic air sacs (alveoli) are destroyed ?

What is the name of the disease in which the microscopic air sacs (alveoli) are destroyed ?

Answer: Emphysema.

How does the fever help to increase the immune system ?

How does the fever help to increase the immune system ?

Answer: It boosts it by stimulating phagocytosis increase metabolism decrease the organism's ability to multiply.

What is Angina Pectoris ?

What is Angina Pectoris ?

Answer: Moderate ischemia causes a characteristic discomfort.

Air in the plural cavity is called ?

Air in the plural cavity is called 

Answer: Pneumothorax

What is the best way for healthcare professionals to prevent the transmission of HIV ?

What is the best way for healthcare professionals to prevent the transmission of HIV ?

Answer: Practice universal precautions assume everyone is affected.

What causes HIV/AIDs ?

What causes HIV/AIDs ?

Answer: A virus.

What is/are the functions of the lymphatic system ?

What is/are the functions of the lymphatic system ?

1. Fluid balance, 
2. Protection from infection and 
3. Absorption of fats.

Blood in the plural cavity is called ?

Blood in the plural cavity is called ?

Answer: Hemothorax.

Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as what type of disease ?

Rheumatoid arthritis is classified as what type of disease ?

Answer: Autoimmune disease.

What disease occurs when the immune system does not recognize mutated cells caused by improper cell division ?

What disease occurs when the immune system does not recognize mutated cells caused by improper cell division ?

Answer: Cancer.

What type of membrane line the respiratory system ?

What type of membrane line the respiratory system ?

Answer: Mucous membrane.

What is the medical term for excessive bleed ?

What is the medical term for excessive bleed ?

Answer: Hemorrhage.

Which lymph organ is responsible for maturing the T-lymphocytes ?

Which lymph organ is responsible for maturing the T-lymphocytes ?

Answer: Thymus.

What is pneumonectomy ?

What is pneumonectomy ?

Answer: Removal of the entire lung.

What is also known as the pacemaker of the heart ?

What is also known as the pacemaker of the heart ?

Answer: sinoatrial SA node.

What are antigens ?

What are antigens ?

Answer: Protein molecules on the surface of RBCs that react against antibodies.

What is the test that is used ti screen for HIV ?

What is the test that is used ti screen for HIV ?

Answer:  ELISA.

What is the medical term for a nose bleed ?

What is the medical term for a nose bleed ?

Answer: epistaxis.

What are nonspecific defenses ?

What are nonspecific defenses ?

Answer: Effective against many different invaders.

What are the functions of the spleen ?

What are the functions of the spleen ?

Answer: Destroys old worn out RBCs produces RBCs before birth serves as a reservoir for blood harbors phagocytes lymphocytes cleanse blood of cellular debridement.

What causes pneumonia ?

What causes pneumonia ?

1. Bacteria, 
2. Virus, 
3. Fungi.

A specialized system of phagocytic cells that remove potentially harmful substances form the body is called

A specialized system of phagocytic cells that remove potentially harmful substances form the body is called 

Answer: Reticuloendothelial system.

Which lymphoid tissue filters the lymph fluid ?

Which lymphoid tissue filters the lymph fluid ?

Answer: lymph nodes.

What is HIV ?

What is HIV ?

Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus, affect T-cells that causes AIDs.

Where are the vocal cords located ?

Where are the vocal cords located ?

Answer: larynx

What term means a person's current health condition ?

What term means a person's current health condition ?

Answer: Predisposition.

What are the 2 ways skin tags can be removed ?

What are the 2 ways skin tags can be removed ?

1. Ligation
2. Scissors

What is the guideline for coding the application and removal of casts and strapping ?

What is the guideline for coding the application and removal of casts and strapping ?

Answer: Removal is included in the application as long as the same physician is putting on the cast.

What is debridement ?

What is debridement ?

Answer: Cleaning of the wound.

Explain the difference between open treatment and closed treatment pertaining to fractures :

Explain the difference between open treatment and closed treatment pertaining to fractures :

1. Open Treatment: wound exposed.
2. Closed Treatment: would not exposed.

Pertaining to burns how are they divided and what are the %'s that make them different?

Pertaining to burns how are they divided and what are the %'s that make them different? 

1. First Degree: 0-5% small,
2. Second Degree: 5.5-10% medium and
3. Third Degree: 10% or more large.

When calculating burns for adults what is the body percentage based on

When calculating burns for adults what is the body percentage based on 

Answer: rule of nines.

List 3 types of repairs :

List 3 types of repairs :

1. Simple,
2. Intermediate and
3. Complex.

What are the 3 factors that must be considered when coding a wound repair?

What are the 3 factors that must be considered when coding a wound repair: 

1. Length,
2. Complex and
3. Site.

Define a surgical package? what is included in it ?

Define a surgical package? what is included in it ?

Answer: It includes the operation itself, local anesthesia, typical postoperative follow up care, one related E/M encounter prior to procedure and immediate follow up care including written orders. it includes preoperative visits, intraoperative services, complications following surgery. post operative visits, supplies, miscellaneous services like dressing or removal of catheter.

How is moderate conscious sedation different from anesthesia and where can you find this type of code?

How is moderate conscious sedation different from anesthesia and where can you find this type of code? 

Answer: Moderate or conscious sedation is a type of sedation that can be provided by a surgeon or the surgeon's staff while surgeon is performing the procedure, it provides a decreased level of consciousness that does not put the patient completely asleep.

What is Analgesia?

What is analgesia? 

Answer: Absence of pain.

Modifiers 26 & TC mean:

Modifiers 26 & TC mean: 

• TC (Technical Component) and 
• 26(Professional Component), these terms are used by third party payers.

What is the difference between modifier -50 & -51:

What is the difference between modifier -50 & -51: 

Answer:

-50: is a bilateral procedure
-51: is multiple procedures

Should a coder pay close attention to the approach used as well as the method: Yes or No?

Should a coder pay close attention to the approach used as well as the method: Yes or No? 

Answer: Yes, of course.

What does the term strangulated mean?

What does the term strangulated mean? 

The blood supply is cut off.

What is the difference between invasive and noninvasive?

What is the difference between invasive and noninvasive? 

Answer:
-invasive: entering the body, breaking the skin.
-noninvasive: not entering the body, not breaking the skin.

What is Ablation ?

What is Ablation ?

Answer: Removal by cutting or destruction.

Name the 4 lesion treatments

Name the 4 lesion treatments 

Answer:
-paring: peeling, scraping
-shaving: slicing
-destruction: ablation
-excision: cutting, removal

What is a Puncture Aspiration ?

What is a Puncture Aspiration ? 

Answer: using a needle to draw out fluid.

What is the surgery global period for major and minor ?

What is the surgery global period for major and minor ?

1. Major: 90 days
2. Minor: 10 days

When do you code minor procedures when they are part of a separate procedure ?

When do you code minor procedures when they are part of a separate procedure ?

Answer: Minor is one procedure and major is coded separately if in different area but if minor follows up to a major the minor would not be coded it would included in the major surgical package.

Define a Separate Procedure ?

Define a Separate Procedure ?

Answer: Procedures followed by "separate procedure" are considered minor that are reported only when they are the only services performed or when they are performed by another major but at a different site or unrelated to major.

What is the Anesthesia Formula?

What is the anesthesia formula? 

Answer:

(B + T + M) x CF

B Stands for Base units.
T Stands for Time units.
M Stands for Modifying units.
CF Stands Conversion Factor.

Define the most common types of anesthesia

Define the most common types of anesthesia 

Answer:
*-endotracheal: insertion of a tube through the nose or mouth into trachea for ventilation
*-epidural: an injection into the epidural spaces between the vertebrae or epidural black
*-spinal: anesthesia produced by an injection of local anesthesia into the subara chnoid space around the spinal cord
*-general: state of unconsciousness that is accomplished by the use of a drug or combo of drugs administered intramuscularly, rectally, intravenously, or by inhalation
*-regional: interrupts the sensory nerves conductivity in a region of a body and is produced by a field block or nerve block
*-local: anesthetic agent placed directly on the area involved or local infiltration through subcutaneous injection of anesthetic agent
*-patient-controlled analgesia (PCA): allows patients to administer an analgesic drug like morphine to control pain.

Name the most common types of anesthesia

Name the most common types of anesthesia 

1. -endotracheal
2. -epidural
3. -regional
4. -patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)

Define anesthesia ?

Define anesthesia ? 

Answer: Induction or administration of a drug to obtain partial or complete loss of sensation.

How many levels are there for pathology classification ?

How many levels are there for pathology classification ?

Answer: 6 levels.

Chemistry codes are for specific tests done on material from any source such as:

Chemistry codes are for specific tests done on material from any source such as: 

Answer: urine, blood, breath, feces, sputum, etc.

A drug test is AKA?

A drug test is AKA? 

Answer: Qualitative.

True or False? Drug testing is to identify the presence or absence of a drug.

True or False? Drug testing is to identify the presence or absence of a drug. 

Answer: True

True or False? The services in Pathology and Lab section include the laboratory tests only. The collection of the specimen is coded separately from the analysis of the test.

True or False? The services in Pathology and Lab section include the laboratory tests only. The collection of the specimen is coded separately from the analysis of the test.

Answer: True

Pathology services coding are formatted according to type of tests performed, __________, ________, and _______. Labs have ________ that allow tests to be performed without a ___________ order from the physician.

Pathology services coding are formatted according to type of tests performed, __________, ________, and _______. Labs have ________ that allow tests to be performed without a ___________ order from the physician. 

Answer:
-automated multichannel
-panels
-assays
-indicators
-written

What are the 2 components in radiology?

What are the 2 components in radiology? 

Answer: Professional and Technical.

It may be stated to mean "supine" means lying on the back. known as?

It may be stated to mean "supine" means lying on the back. known as? 

Answer: Dorsal.

Please list the positions for Radiology along with the definitions of each:

Please list the positions for Radiology along with the definitions of each:

1. -anteroposterior: front to back position
2. -posteroanterior: his/her back close to machine
3. -lateral: side position
4. -dorsal: lying on back
5. -ventral: lying on stomach
6. -decubitus: recumbent (lying) positions

A _______ is how the patient is placed during the x-ray examination and a ________ is the path of the x-ray beam.

A _______ is how the patient is placed during the x-ray examination and a ________ is the path of the x-ray beam.

1.  -position
2. -projection

Define Exostosis ?

Define Exostosis ?

Answer: A bony growth and when present in the external auditory canal. aka surfer's ear bc it is associated w/ chronic cold water exposure.

Remember to use modifier _____ (bilateral procedure) when the procedure is done on two eyes for instance.

Remember to use modifier _____ (bilateral procedure) when the procedure is done on two eyes for instance.

Answer:  -50

In regards to the Endocrine and Nervous system, the nervous system contains codes describing procedures done on the ________, __________, ___________, and all associated parts.

In regards to the Endocrine and Nervous system, the nervous system contains codes describing procedures done on the ________, __________, ___________, and all associated parts. 

1. -brain
2. -spinal cords
3. -nerves

In regards to Maternity Care and Delivery, Uncomplicated services consist of a global package consisting of:

In regards to Maternity Care and Delivery, Uncomplicated services consist of a global package consisting of: 

1. -antepartum care
2. -delivery
3. -postpartum care

Gestation is divided into 3 time periods, called _______. What are they?

Gestation is divided into 3 time periods, called _______. What are they? 

1. -Trimesters
2. -First: Last Menstrual Period (LMP) to 12 weeks
3. -Second: 13 to 27 weeks
4. -Third: 28 to EDD

___ is estimated date of delivery.

______ is estimated date of delivery. 

Answer: EDD

What are the 3 types of procedures that can be performed for a Tubal Ligation?

What are the 3 types of procedures that can be performed for a Tubal Ligation?

1. Tying: of the tubal w/ suture material (ligation)
2. removing: a portion of the tube (transaction)
3. blocking: the tube w/ a device like a clip, ring, or band (occlusion)

One of the factors for coding hernias includes identifying whether the hernia is strangulated. what does strangulated mean?

One of the factors for coding hernias includes identifying whether the hernia is strangulated. what does strangulated mean? 

Strangulated means the blood supply is cut off.

In regards to a coronary artery bypass, blockage can also be pushed to the side of the coronary arterial walls procedure and is known as?

In regards to a coronary artery bypass, blockage can also be pushed to the side of the coronary arterial walls procedure and is known as? 

Answer: Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA).

In regards to the Respiratory system, choose the code that most appropriately reflects the _______ extent of the procedure. Code the correct ________ for the procedure.

In regards to the Respiratory system, choose the code that most appropriately reflects the _______ extent of the procedure. Code the correct ________ for the procedure. 

Answer:

In regards to the Respiratory system, choose the code that most appropriately reflects the Full extent of the procedure. Code the correct Approach for the procedure.

Diagnostic arthroscopy is always included in what type of arthroscopy?

Diagnostic arthroscopy is always included in what type of arthroscopy? 

Answer: Surgical Arthroscopy.

Define Ligament ?

Define Ligament ? 

Answer: A band of fibrous tissue that connects cartilage or bone and supports a joint.

The removal of the ____, _____, or ____ is included each of the application of ______ and _______ codes.

The removal of the ____, _____, or ____ is included each of the application of ______ and _______
codes. 

Answer:

1. cast, strapping, or splints.
2. casts and strapping

Define Strapping ?

Define Strapping ?

Answer: The taping of the body part. it is used to exert pressure on a body part to give it more stability and is used in the treatment of sprains, strains, and dislocations.

In regards to Application of Casts and Strapping, these codes are used for _______ of fractures of the extremities, ligament sprains or tears, and overuse injuries.

In regards to Application of Casts and Strapping, these codes are used for _______ of fractures of the extremities, ligament sprains or tears, and overuse injuries. 

Answer: initial or subsequent treatment

This type of treatment is performed when the physician repairs the fracture without directly visualizing the fracture. know as?

This type of treatment is performed when the physician repairs the fracture without directly visualizing the fracture. know as? 

Answer: Closed Treatment.

Why is CPT ever changing

Why is CPT ever changing 

Answer: to reflect technological advances and editorial revisions.

HCPCS stands for

HCPCS stands for 

Answer: Healthcare Common Procedural Coding System.

The CPT coding system was first developed by and published by

The CPT coding system was first developed by and published by 

Answer: american medical association (AMA) in 1966.

Why is it important to report the correct coding ?

Why is it important to report the correct coding  ?

Answer: During coding because incorrect coding can result in being reimbursed incorrectly and penalized by the government for submission of inappropriate claims.

Category 2 codes are

Category 2 codes are 

Answer: optional performance measures.

The majority of CPT codes that have been approved by the editorial panel of the AMA are

The majority of CPT codes that have been approved by the editorial panel of the AMA are 

Answer: category I codes.

What does CPT stand for

What does CPT stand for 

Answer: current procedural terminology.

Name two types of code in CPT ?

Name two types of code in CPT ?

Answer: stand alone and indented.

What does each section of the CPT manual include

What does each section of the CPT manual include 

Answer: guidelines.

What is the policy if you cannot identify the service provided

What is the policy if you cannot identify the service provided

Answer:  it is not appropriate to approximate.

What section of CPT has a range of codes from 10021-69990

What section of CPT has a range of codes from 10021-69990 

Answer: surgery.

There are 6 sections to CPT name each one in order

There are 6 sections to CPT name each one in order 

1. Evaluation and Management
2. Anesthesia
3. Surgery
4. Radiology
5. Pathology and Lab
6. Medicine

What appendix identifies an add on code with a + symbol ?

What appendix identifies an add on code with a + symbol ?

Answer: appendix D

The pound symbol # appears before what type of code

The pound symbol # appears before what type of code 

Answer: resequenced code.

A triangle placed in front of the code indicated

A triangle placed in front of the code indicated 

Answer: modified or changed.

How are a range of codes displayed in the alphabetic index

How are a range of codes displayed in the alphabetic index 

Answer: hyphen.

How are multiple codes found in the alphabetic index and how will they be displayed

How are multiple codes found in the alphabetic index and how will they be displayed 

Answer: code numbers are displayed in the CPT index as either single, multiple codes with a comma, or a range with a hyphen.

Where should we first go to locate the correct procedure or service code

Where should we first go to locate the correct procedure or service code 

Answer: index.

When must special reports accompany submitting of claims

When must special reports accompany submitting of claims

Answer:  when an unusual new seldom used or category I unlisted code or category III is submitted.

What are category III codes

What are category III codes 

Answer: temporary codes.

Generally an unlisted procedure code will end with

Generally an unlisted procedure code will end with 

Answer: 99

How can procedure or service not in the CPT manual be coded

How can procedure or service not in the CPT manual be coded 

Answer: unlisted procedure if no code is found in categories I II and III.

How is a modifier identified or appended ?

How is a modifier identified or appended ?

Answer: modifiers maybe two number two letters or a number and a letter that is appended to the basic 5 digit cpt code.

What do modifiers provide

What do modifiers provide 

Answer: additional information to the third party payer about services provided to a patient.

What are the many uses of documentation in the medical record

What are the many uses of documentation in the medical record 

1. evaluation,
2. communication,
3. reimbursement claims,
4. review of the use of the healthcare facility,
5. research/education and 
6. legal documentation.

What are the 3 key components used in correctly locating a CPT code

What are the 3 key components used in correctly locating a CPT code 

1. history,
2. examination and
3. medical decision making (MDM).

What is the difference between initial and subsequent ?

What is the difference between initial and subsequent ?

Answer: Initial is a new patient in a hospital setting and subsequent is an established patient in a hospital setting.

What is the definition of a established patient ?

What is the definition of a established patient 

Answer: one who has received professional services from a physician or another of the exact same specialty or subspecialty within the past 3 years.

What is the definition of a new patient

What is the definition of a new patient 

Answer: one who has not received professional services from a physician or another of the exact same specialty or subspecialty within the past 3 years.

What are the two HCPCS levels of codes

What are the two HCPCS levels of codes 

1. HCPCS Level I codes are CPT codes that define what happened
2. HCPCS level II codes are national codes which are used to support what happened supplies/DME

List some of the basic location methods for finding a CPT codes in the alphabetic index

List some of the basic location methods for finding a CPT codes in the alphabetic index 

1. service or procedure,
2. anatomic site,
3. condition or disease,
4. synonym and
5. antonym abbreviation.

What does MDM stand for and what does it mean

What does MDM stand for and what does it mean

Answer: Medical decision making is based on the complexity of the decision the physician must make about the patient's diagnosis and care.

When can counseling only be considered a component of an E/M code

When can counseling only be considered a component of an E/M code 

Answer: only when counseling is the reason for the encounter or consumes most of the visit time more than 50% of the total time.

What are the contributing factor components of an E/M

What are the contributing factor components of an E/M 

1. Code counseling,
2. Coordination of care and
3. Nature of present problem and time.

What two key components in your E/M section have the same result

What two key components in your E/M section have the same result 

Answer: history and examination levels.

HPI is

HPI is 

Answer: a chronological description of the development of the patient's present illness from the first sign and/or symptom or from the previous encounter to the present.

ROS (Review of systems) is

ROS (Review of systems) is

Answer:  an inventory of body systems obtained through a series of questions seeking to identify signs and/or symptoms that patient may be experiencing or has experienced.

CC is

CC is 

Answer: a concise statement describing the symptom problem condition diagnosis physician recommended return or other factor that is the reason for the encounter usually stated in the patients words.

There are 4 elements of the history what are they ?

There are 4 elements of the history what are they ? 

1. Chief Complaint (CC)
2. History of present illness (HPI)
3. Review of systems (ROS)
4. Past family social history (PFSH)

What type of information is part of the history?

What type of information is part of the history? 

Answer: Subjective information the patient tells the physician.

What is a referral?

What is a referral? 

A total transfer of the care of the patient.

A consultant is

A consultant is 

Answer: the physician giving advice is providing a consultation.

What is a consultation?

What is a consultation? 

Answer: A type of visit.

What is the difference between Initial and Subsequent Hospital care?

What is the difference between Initial and Subsequent Hospital care? 

Answer: Initial hospital care reports the initial service of admission to the hospital by the admitting physician
Subsequent hospital care used by physicians to report daily hospital visits while the patients hospitalized.

Hospital inpatient services are divided into two sub headings, what are they?

Hospital inpatient services are divided into two sub headings, what are they? 

1. Initial hospital care.
2. Subsequent hospital care and 
3. discharge services.

During a hospitalization the attending physician is

During a hospitalization the attending physician is 

Answer: legally responsible for the care and treatment provided to a patient during hospitalization.

What are the services in the Observation subsection in E/M used to report

What are the services in the Observation subsection in E/M used to report 

1. Observation code discharge services
2. Initial observation care services
3. Subsequent observation care services

Hospital Observation Services is a subsection in E/M and observation status is used for

Hospital Observation Services is a subsection in E/M and observation status is used for 

Answer: the classification of a patient who does not have an illness severe enough to meet acute inpatient criteria and does not require resources as intensive as an inpatient but does require hospitalization for a short period of time.

How does Physician Standby Services of E/M work?

How does Physician Standby Services of E/M work? 

Answer: When a physician at the request of another physician is standby in case his or her services are need this is only reported when there is a documented request in the patient medical record and no service is performed and there is no direct contact with the patient.

When should you use the Prolong Services subsection of E/M?

When should you use the Prolong Services subsection of E/M? 

Answer: Intended to be used only in addition to other codes to show an extension of some other services.

When should you use the Home Services subsection of E/M?

When should you use the Home Services subsection of E/M? 

Answer: When a patient receives health care services in their home.

When should you use Domiciliary, Rest Home, or Custodial Care Services of E/M

When should you use Domiciliary, Rest Home, or Custodial Care Services of E/M 

Answer: Residents who reside in a domiciliary, rest home, or custodial care service.

Name the 4 subheadings of nursing facility services

Name the 4 subheadings of nursing facility services 

1. Initial Nursing Facility Care.
2. Subsequent Nursing Facility Care.
3. Nursing Facility Discharge Services.
4. Other Nursing Facility Services.

What type of care does a patient receive in a skilled nursing facility?

What type of care does a patient receive in a skilled nursing facility? 

Answer: Patients require less care than that given in an acute care hospital but more care than that provided in a nursing home.

ED service codes NOT assigned

ED service codes NOT assigned 

Answer: for patients at the hospital on observation status even if the observation is located in or near the ED.

Emergency Dept. service codes are assigned:

Emergency Dept. service codes are assigned: 

Answer: For new or established patients when services are provided in an ED that is part of the hospital and the ED is available 24/7.

What defines a pediatric patient?

What defines a pediatric patient? 

Answer: 2 days through 24 months of age to 2 years through 5 years.

What defines a neonate?

What defines a neonate? 

Answer: 28 days or younger.

When are Pediatric Critical Patient Transport codes reported?

When are Pediatric Critical Patient Transport codes reported? 

Answer: Face to face services to a pediatric patient 24 months or younger.

What are Preventative Services considered ?

What are Preventative Services considered ?

Answer: routine services

VLBW stands

VLBW stands 

Answer: for very low birth weight less than 3.3 pounds

LBW stands

LBW stands 

Answer: for Low birth weight 3.3-5.50 pounds

What is a normal birth weight?

What is a normal birth weight? 

Answer: 5.51-11.01 pounds

What do status offenses consist of?

What do status offenses consist of?

A. running away from home
B. truancy from school
C. violating curfew
D. all of the above

Answer: D. All of the Above

Who is the bulk of crimes committed by?

Who is the bulk of crimes committed by?

A. Adolescents
B. Elderly
C. Adults

Answer: A. Adolescents

We are not all criminals in a broad sense.

We are not all criminals in a broad sense.

Answer: False

Our thinking determines both our emotions and our actions T/F

Our thinking determines both our emotions and our actions T/F 

Answer: True

How do you change a distressing event?

How do you change a distressing event?

A. Directly confront the situation and take constructive action to change the situation
B. Not all distressing events can be changed
C. If you can't change the situation, then you must adapt to the situation
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

How many parts does RAS have?

How many parts does RAS have?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5

Answer: C. 5

What was the main goal of Maultsby approach?

What was the main goal of Maultsby approach?

A. Changing self-talk
B. Change unwanted emotion
C. Demonstrate the difference between sane and insane people

Answer: B. Change unwanted emotion

All of these are ways to change an unwanted emotion EXCEPT

All of these are ways to change an unwanted emotion EXCEPT 

A. Changing the negative and irrational thinking that underlines the unwanted emotion
B. Getting involved in a meaningful activity
C. Changing a distressing event
D. Ignoring the unwanted emotion until it goes away

Answer: D. Ignoring the unwanted emotion until it goes away

According to the rational therapy approach, all emotions occur in what format?

According to the rational therapy approach, all emotions occur in what format?

A. Self-talk, emotions, events
B. Self-talk, events, emotions
D. Events, emotions, self-talk

Answer: C. Events, self-talk, emotions

True or False. The use of medical labels has no severe adverse effects.

True or False. The use of medical labels has no severe adverse effects.

Answer: False

David Rosenhan set out to demonstrate what?

David Rosenhan set out to demonstrate what?

A. That emotionally disturbed people were possessed by demons
B. That emotional and behavioral problems should be viewed as mental illnesses
C. That schizophrenia is influenced by genetics
D. That professional staff in mental hospitals could not distinguish insane patients from sane patients

Answer: D. That professional staff in mental hospitals could not distinguish insane patients from sane patients

Who was one of the first authorities to assert that mental illness was a myth; that it does not exist?

Who was one of the first authorities to assert that mental illness was a myth; that it does not exist? 

A. Albert Ellis
B. David Rosenhan
C. Thomas Szasz
D. Lawrence Kohlberg

Answer: C. Thomas Szasz

True or False. It's okay for anorexics and bulimics who enter treatment to be treated for their eating habits and still desire to be very thin.

True or False. It's okay for anorexics and bulimics who enter treatment to be treated for their eating habits and still desire to be very thin. 

Answer: False

Which of these is a similarity between anorexics and bulimics?

Which of these is a similarity between anorexics and bulimics?

A. Possessing an obsessive concern with food
B. Probably had overprotective parents that didn't allow them independence
C. Were good children who were eager to comply and achieve in order to win the love and approval of others
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

Which is NOT a characteristic of Compulsive Overeating?

Which is NOT a characteristic of Compulsive Overeating?

A. a response to a combination of familial, psychological, cultural, and environmental factors
B. results in excessive accumulation of body fat.
C. Obesity in adolescence may be a contributing factor in the development of the disorder in some
D. a response to a combination of familial, psychological, cultural, and environmental factors

Answer: C. Obesity in adolescence may be a contributing factor in the development of the disorder in some

Which is NOT a characteristic of Bulimia Nervosa?

Which is NOT a characteristic of Bulimia Nervosa?

A. Derived from a Greek word meaning "ox-like hunger
B. The rapid, uncontrolled consumption of large amounts of food.
C. Other methods of purging include strict dieting or fasting, vigorous exercise, diet pills, and abuse of diuretics and laxatives
D. tend to be people pleasers who crave attention and approval from others and who are often filled with self-doubt and insecurity

Answer: D. tend to be people pleasers who crave attention and approval from others and who are often filled with self-doubt and insecurity

Which is NOT a characteristic of Anorexia Nervosa?

Which is NOT a characteristic of Anorexia Nervosa?

A. the process of getting rid of the food eaten during a binge
B. The refusal and acceptance of being too thin.
C. As weight is lost health deteriorates and the individual tends to become increasingly depressed.
D. the excessive pursuit of thinness though voluntary starvation.

Answer: A. the process of getting rid of the food eaten during a binge

Which of the following is NOT an eating disorder?

Which of the following is NOT an eating disorder?

A. Bulimia Nervosa
B. Anorexia Nervosa
C. Hypheragia Nervosa
D. Compulsive overeating

Answer: C. Hypheragia Nervosa

Which is not a stage of the ability of youth?

Which is not a stage of the ability of youth?

A. understanding powerlessness
B. awareness and mutual education
C. dialogue and solidarity
D. action and political "identity
E. All of these are stages

Answer: E. All of these are stages

Responsive independence involves progressing from emotional dependence on parents or others to increased independence while still being able to maintain close emotional ties.

Responsive independence involves progressing from emotional dependence on parents or others to increased independence while still being able to maintain close emotional ties. 

Answer: False

Children who have overly protective parents have difficulty making the transition into an adult; they usually do not learn how to assume responsibilities or make important decisions.

Children who have overly protective parents have difficulty making the transition into an adult; they usually do not learn how to assume responsibilities or make important decisions. 

Answer: True

Nocturnal emissions are more common in females

Nocturnal emissions are more common in females

 T/F

Answer: False

__ are those directly related to the sex organs and their direct role in reproduction; ______________ are the traits that distinguish genders but have no direct role in reproduction.

___________ are those directly related to the sex organs and their direct role in reproduction; ______________ are the traits that distinguish genders but have no direct role in reproduction. 

Answer: primary sexual characteristics; secondary sexual characteristics.

_____ is the transitional period between childhood and adulthood during which young people mature physically and sexually.

_____ is the transitional period between childhood and adulthood during which young people mature physically and sexually.

A. puberty
B. adolescence
C. hormones
D. primary sexual characteristics

Answer: B. adolescence

A 14 year old boy toward is 5 inches shorter than one from 1880

A 14 year old boy toward is 5 inches shorter than one from 1880 

T/F

Answer: False

The first sign of puberty in a female is:

The first sign of puberty in a female is:

A. breast development
B. she gets taller
C. boys stop having cooties
D. menstruation

Answer: D. menstruation

__ Of males and __ of females have sexual intercourse by age 19

__ Of males and __ of females have sexual intercourse by age 19

a. 25% and 26%
b. 12% and 15%
c. 69% and 77%
d. 80% and 90%

Answer: c. 69% and 77%

Which of the following is a viral infection?

Which of the following is a viral infection?

a. Chlamydia
b. Syphilis
c. HIV/AIDs
d. None of the above

Answer: c. HIV/AIDs

Secondary sexual characteristics are those directly related to the sex organs and their direct role in reproduction.

Secondary sexual characteristics are those directly related to the sex organs and their direct role in reproduction.

 T/F

Answer: False

During adolescence individuals do not engage in self-criticism

During adolescence individuals do not engage in self-criticism

 T/F

Answer: False

What is NOT an advantage to comprehensive sex education?

What is NOT an advantage to comprehensive sex education?

a. Seeks to provide accurate information about human sexuality
b. Seeks to provide an opportunity for young people to question, explore, and assess their own community's attitudes about society, gender and sexuality
c. Seeks to help young people develop interpersonal skills
d. All of the above are

Answer: d. All of the above are

An adolescent's self-esteem is directly related to his/her body image and attractiveness.

An adolescent's self-esteem is directly related to his/her body image and attractiveness. 

T/F

Answer: True

Boys are more likely to experience depression during adolescence.

Boys are more likely to experience depression during adolescence. 

T/F

Answer: False

Which of the following is NOT true of smoking tobacco?

Which of the following is NOT true of smoking tobacco?

A. Smoking is related to heart disease
B. Nicotine is a stimulant that increases heart rate and blood pressure
C. It is not too difficult to quit smoking
D. Smoking can lead to lung cancer

Answer: C. It is not too difficult to quit smoking

Which of the following is an environmental factor that affects the risk for adolescent alcohol and drug abuse?

Which of the following is an environmental factor that affects the risk for adolescent alcohol and drug abuse?

A. Lack of parental involvement
B. Inadequate education
C. Poor coping skills
D. Parental alcohol or drug abuse

Answer: B. Inadequate education

Why is early maturation in males linked to aggression, delinquency, and abuse of alcohol and other drugs?

Why is early maturation in males linked to aggression, delinquency, and abuse of alcohol and other drugs?

A. They have not yet gained emotional and intellectual maturity
B. Because they look older, they might get involved with older peers and be introduced into situations they are not yet ready to handle
C. Because they look older, people perceive them as having greater decision-making and leadership skills than they actually do.
D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

Which of the following is part of the five stages of the Tuckman model?

Which of the following is part of the five stages of the Tuckman model? 

A. Forming
B. Norming
C. Storming
D. All of these

Answer: D. All of the above

The roles of Energizer and Coordinator fall under:

The roles of Energizer and Coordinator fall under: 

A. Task roles
B. Developmental roles
C. Maintenance roles
D. Sequential Roles

Answer: A; Task roles

The Bales model is most applicable to women's groups.

The Bales model is most applicable to women's groups. 

True or False

Answer: False

Tasks roles are roles that are needed to accomplish the specific goals set by the group.

Tasks roles are roles that are needed to accomplish the specific goals set by the group. 

True or False

Answer: True

Which of the following is NOT a group development model discussed in chapter 8?

Which of the following is NOT a group development model discussed in chapter 8?

A. Tuckman model
B. Garland, Jones, and Kolodny model
C. Tubb's system model
D. Bales model

Answer: C; Tubb's system model

Working with pre delinquent youth in group activities to prevent delinquency in an example of a socialization group.

Working with pre delinquent youth in group activities to prevent delinquency in an example of a socialization group. 

T/F

Answer: True

An example of a habit disturbance organization self-help group is:

An example of a habit disturbance organization self-help group is:

A. Stroke Clubs
B. Widow to- Widow Program
C. Alcoholics Anonymous

Answer:  C. Alcoholics Anonymous

A task force is an administrative group charged with responsibility for setting the policy governing agency program.

A task force is an administrative group charged with responsibility for setting the policy governing agency program. 

T/F

Answer:  False

Examples of Task group's social workers interact with or are involved with:

Examples of Task group's social workers interact with or are involved with: 

A. Board of directors
B. Task force
C. Committee
D. All the above

Answer: D. All of the above

The objective of a ________ group is to improve a set of skills while providing enjoyment.

The objective of a ________ group is to improve a set of skills while providing enjoyment.

A. Recreational
B. Recreation-skill
C. Task

Answer: B. Recreation-skill

___ is establishing group goals and policies.

___ is establishing group goals and policies.

A. Expert
B. Ideologist
C. Policymaker

Answer: C. Policymaker

Scapegoat is serving as the target for ventilating members' frustrations and disappointment.

Scapegoat is serving as the target for ventilating members' frustrations and disappointment. 

True or False

Answer: True

A style of approach that set goals, dictate activities to members, and set major plans are _____

A style of approach that set goals, dictate activities to members, and set major plans are _____

A. Democratic
B. Authoritarian
C. Democratic-Authoritarian

Answer: B.Authoritarian

___ are slow at decision making and sometimes confusing, but is proving to be more effective

___ are slow at decision making and sometimes confusing, but is proving to be more effective.

A. Democratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Authoritarian

Answer: A.Democratic

Is trait approach apart of the leadership theories?

Is trait approach apart of the leadership theories? 

True or False.

Answer: True

Social Workers is viewed as a "detached worker" or "gang group worker" in what level of intervention?

Social Workers is viewed as a "detached worker" or "gang group worker" in what level of intervention?

A. Micro
B. Mezzo
C. Macro

Answer: B. Mezzo

TRUE OR FALSE: Community revitalization is the most effective strategy to reduce gang problems.

TRUE OR FALSE: Community revitalization is the most effective strategy to reduce gang problems. 

Answer: False

The Klu Klux Klan and "Skin head's" are considered to be a part of which type of gang?

The Klu Klux Klan and "Skin head's" are considered to be a part of which type of gang?

a. Cult occult
b. Criminal
c. Retreatist

Answer: A. Cult Occult

Female gangs do NOT exist.

Female gangs do NOT exist. 

True or False

Answer: FALSE

Which gang is considered "turf oriented"

Which gang is considered "turf oriented"

a. Criminal
b. Cult occult
c. Conflict

Answer: C. conflict

Which is true about sexual abuse:

Which is true about sexual abuse:

A). Victims are not affected by abuse
B). It is their own fault
C). They typically have emotional problems

Answer: C). They typically have emotional problems

Which children are most susceptible to abuse?

Which children are most susceptible to abuse?

A). Children with no father
B). Children with fathers
C). Children who walk by themselves often

Answer: Children with no father

Long term sexual abuse effects are:

Long term sexual abuse effects are:

A). Depression
B). PTSD
C). Fear of relationship
D). All

Answer: All

What is a pedophile?

What is a pedophile?

A). Someone who prefers children
B). Someone who prefers women
C). someone who prefers somebody of the same sex

Answer: A). Someone who prefers children

In sexual abuse cases how much of it is strangers?

In sexual abuse cases how much of it is strangers?

A). 60-70
B). 40
C). 5-15

Answer: C). 5-15

Psychological abuse and neglect falls under:

Psychological abuse and neglect falls under:

A). Child maltreatment
B). Psychological maltreatment
C). Terrorizing

Answer: B). Psychological maltreatment

What are some characteristics of abusers?

What are some characteristics of abusers?

A). Corrupting
B). Ignoring
C). Social Isolation, poor general coping skills, poor parenting skills

Answer: C). Social Isolation, poor general coping skills, poor parenting skills

Would the definition of child maltreatment change with every state?

Would the definition of child maltreatment change with every state?

True
False

Answer: False