Archive for August 2017

Frederick Sanger is a twice recipient of the Nobel Prize for

Frederick Sanger is a twice recipient of the Nobel Prize for



A. Chemistry in 1958 and 1980
B. Physics in 1956 and 1972
C. Chemistry in 1954 and Peace in 1962
D. Physics in 1903 and Chemistry in 1911



Answer: A

Hermann Scheer (Germany) received right Livelihood Award in 1999 for

Hermann Scheer (Germany) received right Livelihood Award in 1999 for




A. his indefatigable work for thepromotion of solar energy worldwide
B. his long standing efforts to end the impunity of dictators
C. showing that organic agriculture is a key to both environmental sustainability and food security
D. None of the above



Answer: A

Guru Gobind Singh was

Guru Gobind Singh was




A. the 10th Guru of the Sikhs
B. founder of Khalsa, the inner council of the Sikhs in 1699
C. author of Dasam Granth
D. All the above



Answer: D

Film and TV institute of India is located at

Film and TV institute of India is located at




A. Pune (Maharashtra)
B. Rajkot (Gujarat)
C. Pimpri (Maharashtra)
D. Perambur (Tamilnadu)



Answer: A

From the following, choose the set in which names of Secretary-Generals of the UNO are arranged in correct chronological order?

From the following, choose the set in which names of Secretary-Generals of the UNO are arranged in correct chronological order?




A. U Thant, Kurt Waldheim, Dag Hammarskjoeld, Trygve Lie.
B. Trygve Lie, Dag Hammarskjoeld, U Thant, Kurt Waldheim.
C. Trygve Lie, U Thant , Dag Hammarskjoeld, Kurt Waldheim.
D. U Thant, Dag Hammarskjoeld, Trygve Lie, Kurt Waldheim.



Answer: B

Friction can be reduced by changing from

Friction can be reduced by changing from



A. sliding to rolling
B. rolling to sliding
C. potential energy to kinetic energy
D. dynamic to static



Answer: A

Dumping is

Dumping is




A. selling of goods abroad at a price well below the production cost at the home market price
B. the process by which the supply of a manufacture's product remains low in the domestic market, which batches him better price
C. prohibited by regulations of GATT
D. All of the above



Answer: D

First China War was fought between

First China War was fought between



A. China and Britain
B. China and France
C. China and Egypt
D. China and Greek



Answer: A

Gulf cooperation council was originally formed by

Gulf cooperation council was originally formed by




A. Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates
B. Second World Nations
C. Third World Nations
D. Fourth World Nations



Answer: A

First Afghan War took place in

First Afghan War took place in



A. 1839
B. 1843
C. 1833
D. 1848



Answer: A

Exposure to sunlight helps a person improve his health because

Exposure to sunlight helps a person improve his health because




A. the infrared light kills bacteria in the body
B. resistance power increases
C. the pigment cells in the skin get stimulated and produce a healthy tan
D. the ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin D



Answer: D

Habeas Corpus Act 1679

Habeas Corpus Act 1679




A. states that no one was to be imprisoned without a writ or warrant stating the charge against him
B. provided facilities to a prisoner to obtain either speedy trial or release in bail
C. safeguarded the personal liberties of the people against arbitrary imprisonment by the king's orders
D. All of the above



Answer: D

Galileo was an Italian astronomer who

Galileo was an Italian astronomer who



A. developed the telescope
B. discovered four satellites of Jupiter
C. discovered that the movement of pendulum produces a regular time measurement
D. All of the above



Answer: D

Fastest shorthand writer was

Fastest shorthand writer was



A. Dr. G. D. Bist
B. J.R.D. Tata
C. J.M. Tagore
D. Khudada Khan



Answer: A

FFC stands for

FFC stands for




A. Foreign Finance Corporation
B. Film Finance Corporation
C. Federation of Football Council
D. None of the above



Answer: B

Garampani sanctuary is located at

Garampani sanctuary is located at




A. Junagarh, Gujarat
B. Diphu, Assam
C. Kohima, Nagaland
D. Gangtok, Sikkim



Answer: B

Entomology is the science that studies

Entomology is the science that studies




A. Behavior of human beings
B. Insects
C. The origin and history of technical and scientific terms
D. The formation of rocks



Answer: B

Laboratory results reveal decreased levels of prolactin in a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. When assessing the client, which symptoms should a nurse expect to observe?(Select all that apply.)

Laboratory results reveal decreased levels of prolactin in a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. When assessing the client, which symptoms should a nurse expect to observe?(Select all that apply.)




A. Apathy
B. Social withdrawal
C. Anhedonia
D. Auditory hallucinations
E. Delusions




ANS: A, B, C

A nurse is administering risperidone (Risperdal) to a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The therapeutic effect of this medication would most effectively address which of the following symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is administering risperidone (Risperdal) to a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The therapeutic effect of this medication would most effectively address which of the following symptoms? (Select all that apply.)




A. Somatic delusions
B. Social isolation
C. Gustatory hallucinations
D. Flat affect
E. Clang associations



ANS: A, C, E

Which of the following components should a nurse recognize as an integral part of a rehabilitative program when planning care for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.)

Which of the following components should a nurse recognize as an integral part of a rehabilitative program when planning care for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.)




A. Group therapy
B. Medication management
C. Deterrent therapy
D. Supportive family therapy
E. Social skills training



ANS: A, B, D, E

A newly admitted client has taken thioridazine (Mellaril) for 2 years with good symptom control. Symptoms exhibited on admission included paranoid delusions and hallucinations. The nurse should recognize which potential cause for the return of these symptoms?

A newly admitted client has taken thioridazine (Mellaril) for 2 years with good symptom control. Symptoms exhibited on admission included paranoid delusions and hallucinations. The nurse should recognize which potential cause for the return of these symptoms?




A. The client has developed tolerance to the antipsychotic medication.
B. The client has not taken the medication with food.
C. The client has not taken the medication as prescribed.
D. The client has combined alcohol with the medication.



ANS: C

A client states, "I hear voices that tell me that I am evil." Which outcome related to these symptoms should the nurse expect this client to accomplish by discharge?

A client states, "I hear voices that tell me that I am evil." Which outcome related to these symptoms should the nurse expect this client to accomplish by discharge?




A. The client will verbalize the reason the voices make derogatory statements.
B. The client will not hear auditory hallucinations.
C. The client will identify events that increase anxiety and illicit hallucinations.
D. The client will positively integrate the voices into the client's personality structure.



ANS: C

A client has been recently admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse plan to use to reduce the client's focus on delusional thinking?

A client has been recently admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse plan to use to reduce the client's focus on delusional thinking?




A. Present evidence that supports the reality of the situation
B. Focus on feelings suggested by the delusion
C. Address the delusion with logical explanations
D. Explore reasons why the client has the delusion



ANS: B

A college student has quit attending classes, isolates self due to hearing voices, and yells accusations at fellow students. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?

A college student has quit attending classes, isolates self due to hearing voices, and yells accusations at fellow students. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?



A. Altered thought processes R/T hearing voices AEB increased anxiety
B. Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations
C. Social isolation R/T paranoia AEB absence from classes
D. Risk for self-directed violence R/T depressed mood





Answer: B

During an admission assessment, a nurse notes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia has allergies to penicillin, prochlorperazine (Compazine), and bee stings. Based on this assessment data, which antipsychotic medication would be contraindicated?

During an admission assessment, a nurse notes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia has allergies to penicillin, prochlorperazine (Compazine), and bee stings. Based on this assessment data, which antipsychotic medication would be contraindicated?




A. Haloperidol (Haldol), because it is used only in elderly patients
B. Clozapine (Clozaril), because of a cross-sensitivity to penicillin
C. Risperidone (Risperdal), because it exacerbates symptoms of depression
D. Thioridazine (Mellaril), because of cross-sensitivity among phenothiazines




ANS: D

If clozapine (Clozaril) therapy is being considered, the nurse should evaluate which laboratory test to establish a baseline for comparison in order to recognize a potentially life-threatening side effect?

If clozapine (Clozaril) therapy is being considered, the nurse should evaluate which laboratory test to establish a baseline for comparison in order to recognize a potentially life-threatening side effect?




A. White blood cell count
B. Liver function studies
C. Creatinine clearance
D. Blood urea nitrogen



ANS: A

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which client symptoms related to the side effects of this medication should prompt a nurse to intervene immediately?

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which client symptoms related to the side effects of this medication should prompt a nurse to intervene immediately?




A. Sore throat, fever, and malaise
B. Akathisia and hypersalivation
C. Akinesia and insomnia
D. Dry mouth and urinary retention



ANS: A

An aging client diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic and a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (propranolol) for hypertension. Understanding the combined side effects of these drugs, which statement by a nurse is most appropriate?

An aging client diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic and a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (propranolol) for hypertension. Understanding the combined side effects of these drugs, which statement by a nurse is most appropriate?




A. "Make sure you concentrate on taking slow, deep, cleansing breaths."
B. "Watch your diet and try to engage in some regular physical activity."
C. "Rise slowly when you change position from lying to sitting or sitting to standing."
D. "Wear sunscreen and try to avoid midday sun exposure."



ANS: C

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic agent daily. Which assessment finding should a nurse immediately report to the client's attending psychiatrist?

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic agent daily. Which assessment finding should a nurse immediately report to the client's attending psychiatrist?




A. Respirations of 22 beats/minute
B. Weight gain of 8 pounds in 2 months
C. Temperature of 104F (40C)
D. Excessive salivation



ANS: C

After taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 1 month, a client presents to an emergency department (ED) with severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and a temperature of 105oF (40.5C). The nurse expects the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment?

After taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 1 month, a client presents to an emergency department (ED) with severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and a temperature of 105oF (40.5C). The nurse expects the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment?




A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and treat by discontinuing Thorazine and administering dantrolene (Dantrium)
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and treat by increasing Thorazine dosage and administering an antianxiety medication
C. Dystonia and treat by administering trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
D. Dystonia and treat by administering bromocriptine (Parlodel)



ANS: A

A client diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia presents in an emergency department (ED) with uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, and difficulty swallowing. The nurse would expect the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment?

A client diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia presents in an emergency department (ED) with uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, and difficulty swallowing. The nurse would expect the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment?



A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and treat by discontinuing antipsychotic medications
B. Agranulocytosis and treat by administration of clozapine (Clozaril)
C. Extrapyramidal symptoms and treat by administration of benztropine (Cogentin)
D. Tardive dyskinesia and treat by discontinuing antipsychotic medications



ANS: D

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a flat affect, paranoid delusions, anhedonia, anergia, neologisms, and echolalia. Which statement correctly differentiates the client's positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a flat affect, paranoid delusions, anhedonia, anergia, neologisms, and echolalia. Which statement correctly differentiates the client's positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?




A. Paranoid delusions, anhedonia, and anergia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
B. Paranoid delusions, neologisms, and echolalia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Paranoid delusions, anergia, and echolalia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
D. Paranoid delusions, flat affect, and anhedonia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia.



ANS: B

A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?

A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?




A. Tactile hallucinations
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity
D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices



ANS: C

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?




A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom



ANS: C

A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia states, "My psychiatrist is out to get me. I'm sad that the voice is telling me to stop him." What symptom is the client exhibiting, and what is the nurse's legal responsibility related to this symptom?

A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia states, "My psychiatrist is out to get me. I'm sad that the voice is telling me to stop him." What symptom is the client exhibiting, and what is the nurse's legal responsibility related to this symptom?




A. Magical thinking; administer an antipsychotic medication
B. Persecutory delusions; orient the client to reality
C. Command hallucinations; warn the psychiatrist
D. Altered thought processes; call an emergency treatment team meeting



ANS: C

Which nursing behavior will enhance the establishment of a trusting relationship with a client diagnosed with schizophrenia?

Which nursing behavior will enhance the establishment of a trusting relationship with a client diagnosed with schizophrenia?




A. Establishing personal contact with family members.
B. Being reliable, honest, and consistent during interactions.
C. Sharing limited personal information.
D. Sitting close to the client to establish rapport.



ANS: B

Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate when caring for an acutely agitated client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia?

Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate when caring for an acutely agitated client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia?




A. Provide neon lights and soft music.
B. Maintain continual eye contact throughout the interview.
C. Use therapeutic touch to increase trust and rapport.
D. Provide personal space to respect the client's boundaries.



ANS: D

A client diagnosed with psychosis NOS (not otherwise specified) tells a nurse about voices telling him to kill the president. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize for this client?

A client diagnosed with psychosis NOS (not otherwise specified) tells a nurse about voices telling him to kill the president. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize for this client?




A. Disturbed sensory perception
B. Altered thought processes
C. Risk for violence: directed toward others
D. Risk for injury



ANS: C

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, "Can't you hear him? It's the devil. He's telling me I'm going to hell." Which is the most appropriate nursing reply?

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, "Can't you hear him? It's the devil. He's telling me I'm going to hell." Which is the most appropriate nursing reply?




A. "Did you take your medicine this morning?"
B. "You are not going to hell. You are a good person."
C. "I'm sure the voices sound scary. The devil is not talking to you. This is part of your illness."
D. "The devil only talks to people who are receptive to his influence."



ANS: C

During an admission assessment, a nurse asks a client diagnosed with schizophrenia, "Have you ever felt that certain objects or persons have control over your behavior?" The nurse is assessing for which type of thought disruption?

During an admission assessment, a nurse asks a client diagnosed with schizophrenia, "Have you ever felt that certain objects or persons have control over your behavior?" The nurse is assessing for which type of thought disruption?




A. Delusions of persecution
B. Delusions of influence
C. Delusions of reference
D. Delusions of grandeur



ANS: B

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia tells a nurse, "The 'Shopatouliens' took my shoes out of my room last night." Which is an appropriate charting entry to describe this client's statement?

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia tells a nurse, "The 'Shopatouliens' took my shoes out of my room last night." Which is an appropriate charting entry to describe this client's statement?




A. "The client is experiencing command hallucinations."
B. "The client is expressing a neologism."
C. "The client is experiencing a paranoid delusion."
D. "The client is verbalizing a word salad."



ANS: B

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. The nurse asks the client, "Do you receive special messages from certain sources, such as the television or radio?" Which potential symptom of this disorder is the nurse assessing?

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. The nurse asks the client, "Do you receive special messages from certain sources, such as the television or radio?" Which potential symptom of this disorder is the nurse assessing?




A. Thought insertion
B. Paranoid delusions
C. Magical thinking
D. Delusions of reference



ANS: D

Parents ask a nurse how they should reply when their child, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, tells them that voices command him to harm others. Which is the appropriate nursing reply?

Parents ask a nurse how they should reply when their child, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, tells them that voices command him to harm others. Which is the appropriate nursing reply?





A. "Tell him to stop discussing the voices."
B. "Ignore what he is saying, while attempting to discover the underlying cause."
C. "Focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality."
D. "Present objective evidence that the voices are not real."




ANS: C

A 16-year-old-client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia experiences command hallucinations to harm others. The client's parents ask a nurse, "Where do the voices come from?" Which is the appropriate nursing reply?

A 16-year-old-client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia experiences command hallucinations to harm others. The client's parents ask a nurse, "Where do the voices come from?" Which is the appropriate nursing reply?




A. "Your child has a chemical imbalance of the brain which leads to altered thoughts."
B. "Your child's hallucinations are caused by medication interactions."
C. "Your child has too little serotonin in the brain causing delusions and hallucinations."
D. "Your child's abnormal hormonal changes have precipitated auditory hallucinations."



ANS: A

A paranoid client presents with bizarre behaviors, neologisms, and thought insertion. Which nursing action should be prioritized to maintain this client's safety?

A paranoid client presents with bizarre behaviors, neologisms, and thought insertion. Which nursing action should be prioritized to maintain this client's safety?




A. Assess for medication noncompliance
B. Note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately
C. Interpret attempts at communication
D. Assess triggers for bizarre, inappropriate behaviors



ANS: B

Which of the following does the text suggest is one of the consequences of intense competition in media today?

Which of the following does the text suggest is one of the consequences of intense competition in media today?




a. Reporters are more easily manipulated by sources than once was the case.
b. The requirements for citation of sources are more rigorous than ever.
c. There are few incentives to rely on sensational news stories.
d. Reporters are less confrontational with public officials than they once were.
e. None of the above.




Answer: A

The president of the United States is unlike the chief executive of other nations with regard to the

The president of the United States is unlike the chief executive of other nations with regard to the



a. hostility with which he is normally treated by the press.
b. use of the press secretary as an instrument for dealing with the press.
c. extreme difficulty that the press experiences in covering his activities.
d. close physical proximity between the press and the center of government.
e. manner in which he is required to conduct press conferences.




Answer: D

The potential impact of the media coverage is certainly well illustrated by the case of Estes Kefauver who, in the 1950s, became a "household name" by

The potential impact of the media coverage is certainly well illustrated by the case of Estes Kefauver who, in the 1950s, became a "household name" by



a. leading members of the House and Senate in a protest march through the White House.
b. chairing a Senate committee investigating organized crime.
c. submitting a law which attempted to eliminate the influence of interest groups in elections.
d. dropping thousands of leaflets from a plane while flying over the White House.
e. refusing to give up his Senate seat, even after having lost his bid for re-election.






Answer: B

A study of the top ten newspapers and the Associated Press found news items concerning _______ were more likely to be interpreted in a negative fashion when there was a Republican president.

A study of the top ten newspapers and the Associated Press found news items concerning _______ were more likely to be interpreted in a negative fashion when there was a Republican president.



a. Supreme Court decisions
b. social issues
c. government economic reports
d. immigration
e. mid-term elections






Answer: C

Conservative dominance in talk radio can be best explained by the fact that

Conservative dominance in talk radio can be best explained by the fact that



a. liberal hosts have never had big corporate sponsors.
b. conservatives flooded the market first and left little room for competition.
c. the Fairness Doctrine gave an advantage to conservatives.
d. media owners are not tolerant of liberal viewpoints.
e. liberal hosts have never attained high ratings.





Answer: A

Since the 1980s, studies of media bias have reached the same conclusion, that members of the national press are

Since the 1980s, studies of media bias have reached the same conclusion, that members of the national press are



a. more liberal than the average member of the public.
b. more conservative than the average member of the public.
c. more moderate than the average member of the public.
d. generally objective, and without political bias.
e. without noticeable, systematic bias.




Answer: A

The text suggests that, if the Fairness Doctrine had stayed in place,

The text suggests that, if the Fairness Doctrine had stayed in place,




a. there would be more competition among radio and television stations.
b. political advertising would be available to all candidates regardless of party or viewpoint.
c. there would be no Rush Limbaugh.
d. Congress would have developed the law on libel more meticulously.
e. the Supreme Court would have received more news coverage.




Answer: C

In general, the Supreme Court has upheld the right of government to compel reporters to divulge information as part of a properly conducted criminal investigation if

In general, the Supreme Court has upheld the right of government to compel reporters to divulge information as part of a properly conducted criminal investigation if




a. the president has pardoned a defendant for contempt of court.
b. a jury is unable to reach a decision.
c. it has not been reported publicly.
d. it has been reported publicly.
e. it bears on the commission of a crime.





Answer: E

For a public official in the United States to win a libel suit against the press, he or she must prove that

For a public official in the United States to win a libel suit against the press, he or she must prove that




a. what was printed was untrue.
b. the material was untrue and was printed maliciously.
c. the material caused "emotional duress."
d. his or her privacy was violated.
e. the printing of the material in question has done "substantial harm" to the public interest.





Answer: B

An irony concerning government regulation of the news media is that

An irony concerning government regulation of the news media is that





a. American media are less regulated than foreign media despite the greater need for regulation here.
b. legislation designed to intimidate the media has in fact made them more hostile toward officials.
c. the least competitive part of the media is almost entirely unregulated, whereas the most competitive part is substantially regulated.
d. the most influential media, the broadcast media, show highly concentrated patterns of ownership by a few large corporations.
e. all of the above.



Answer: C

In the late 1980s the "watchdog" function of the media was notable in the case of the frontrunning Democratic presidential nominee, Gary Hart, who was accused of

In the late 1980s the "watchdog" function of the media was notable in the case of the frontrunning Democratic presidential nominee, Gary Hart, who was accused of




a. having an extra marital affair.
b. using illegal drugs.
c. income tax evasion.
d. lying to congressional committees.
e. falsifying draft registration records.





Answer: A

One of Jimmy Carter's signal achievements in dealing with the press in the 1976 primary campaign was

One of Jimmy Carter's signal achievements in dealing with the press in the 1976 primary campaign was




a. keeping a low profile.
b. taking newsworthy positions on important issues.
c. defusing an initial bias against him among reporters.
d. refusing to buckle under the pressure of special interests.
e. getting himself mentioned with great frequency.



Answer: E

Which of the following statements concerning national newspapers is incorrect?

Which of the following statements concerning national newspapers is incorrect?




a. They distribute millions of copies on a daily basis.
b. They are carefully followed by political elites.
c. Radio and television stations look to such papers for cues on reporting.
d. The reporters for such papers have higher levels of education than their local counterparts.
e. none of the above.



Answer: E

Joint Operating Agreements are important to consider when assessing the competition and diversity of viewpoint among newspapers because they

Joint Operating Agreements are important to consider when assessing the competition and diversity of viewpoint among newspapers because they



a. encourage the hiring of minorities.
b. have increased the sales of newspapers in major metropolitan areas.
c. are usually biased in a conservative direction.
d. allow businesses to own more than one paper in a large city.
e. do not allow the expression of political opinion without prior consent.




Answer: D

The invention of radio was a politically important media development because it

The invention of radio was a politically important media development because it



a. allowed public officials to reach the public in a less-filtered manner.
b. gave rise to the era of mass politics and a large electorate.
c. rendered image more important than substance in seeking political office.
d. more than doubled the number of persons who followed politics with interest.
e. reinforced the influence of political parties when it was first introduced.






Answer: A

Which of the following was not among the achievements of the mass-based press, exemplified by Hearst and Pulitzer?

Which of the following was not among the achievements of the mass-based press, exemplified by Hearst and Pulitzer?




a. Instituting responsible and unbiased journalism
b. Beginning the creation of a national political culture
c. Proving the feasibility of a press free of government subsidy or control
d. Revealing public scandal
e. Criticizing public policy




Answer: A

Which of the following was a milestone in the development of a reasonably nonpartisan and unbiased press?

Which of the following was a milestone in the development of a reasonably nonpartisan and unbiased press?



a. The establishment of the Gazette of the United States during the Washington administration
b. The establishment of the Associated Press in 1848
c. The creation of the National Intelligence by Jacksonian Democrats
d. The rise of magazines of opinion in the late 1800s
e. The rise of competition from radio in the 1920s




Answer: B

Politicians have become more heavily dependent on the media as

Politicians have become more heavily dependent on the media as



a. the public has become better educated.
b. the federal bureaucracy has enlarged itself.
c. public affairs have become much more complex.
d. the scope of government has expanded.
e. political party organizations have declined.





Answer: E

When CBS News ran a story claiming President Bush performed poorly during his time in the National Guard, _________ produced evidenced that the documents underlying the report were forgeries.

When CBS News ran a story claiming President Bush performed poorly during his time in the National Guard, _________ produced evidenced that the documents underlying the report were forgeries.



a. NBC
b. Fox News
c. White House lawyers
d. Republican media consultants
e. bloggers





Answer: E

Normally, when you create a file with a text editor, the file is set up with

Normally, when you create a file with a text editor, the file is set up with



a. read and write permission for you and read-only permission for others.
b. write permission for you and read only permission for others.
c. read, write, and execute for you and read, write for others.
d. read and write permission for you and read, write for others.





Answer: A

Which query is made by one name server to another name server?

Which query is made by one name server to another name server?




a. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) query.
b. Domain name service (DNS) query.
c. Recursive query.
d. Non-recursive query.





Answer: D

Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?

Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?



a. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers.
b. Domain name service (DNS) servers.
c. Domain controllers.
d. Global catalog servers.





Answer: C

What best describes programming machine code?

What best describes programming machine code?



a. Another term for firmware.
b. Statements that correspond to complex actions.
c. Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer.
d. Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer.





Answer: C

Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?

Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?



a. They are nearly self-documenting.
b. They use English-like statements.
c. Source codes that are written closest to machine language.
d. Programs are transportable between computers with few changes.






Answer: C

What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?

What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?



a. Ease of replacing the hard drive.
b. Ease of replacing network connectivity.
c. Ease of replacing server.
d. Multiple users can access the server at once.



Answer: C

What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?



a. Read only memory (ROM).
b. Basic input/output system (BIOS).
c. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
d. Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).





Answer: A

What is considered to be a computer's main storage?

What is considered to be a computer's main storage?



a. Random access memory (RAM).
b. Read only memory (ROM).
c. Basic input/output system (BIOS).
d. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).




Answer: A

What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?

What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?



a. Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS).
b. Combat integrated systems.
c. Theater deployable communications (TDC).
d. Integrated communications access package (ICAP).






Answer: C

The two ways key establishment can occur are key

The two ways key establishment can occur are key



a. transfer and agreement.
b. transfer and interchange.
c. generation and agreement.
d. generation and interchange.



Answer: A

What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?



a. Public key cryptography.
b. Public key infrastructure (PKI).
c. Key distribution center.
d. Asymmetric key infrastructure.





Answer: B

What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?

What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?



a. Personnel that continue to misuse the network by surfing the web.
b. Access to the network through backdoors left by system administrators.
c. Network-connected desktop systems with modems that make calls to the public-switched network.
d. Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network.




Answer: D

What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message's header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port?

What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message's header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port?




a. Proxy.
b. Bastion host.
c. Packet filtering.
d. Intrusion detection.




Answer: C

What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?

What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?



a. Identification spoofing and tunneling.
b. Tunneling and application-based attacks.
c. Second message encryption and identification spoofing.
d. Application-based attacks and second message encryption.



Answer: B

Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?

Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?



a. Defense Information System Agency (DISA).
b. Air Force Communication Agency (AFCA).
c. Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT).
d. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).



Answer: D

What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?




a. Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).
b. Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).
c. Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).
d. Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).




Answer: B
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