People suffering from ____ feel distressed when deprived of technology, even for a short length of time, or feel overwhelmed with the amount of technology they are required to manage.

People suffering from ____ feel distressed when deprived of technology, even for a short length of time, or feel overwhelmed with the amount of technology they are required to manage.



a. computer vision syndrome
b. technology overload
c. carpal tunnel syndrome
d. repetitive strain





Answer: B

Airline reservation systems, communications networks, and ATMs use ____ computers, which have duplicate components so that they can continue to operate when one of its main components fail.

Airline reservation systems, communications networks, and ATMs use ____ computers, which have duplicate components so that they can continue to operate when one of its main components fail.




a. fault-tolerant
b. Joule-rated
c. uninterruptable
d. surge-protected




Answer: A

Devices that connect to a ____ include the following: card reader, digital camera, external hard drive, modem, mouse, optical disc drive, printer, scanner, smartphone, speakers, USB flash drive, and webcam.

Devices that connect to a ____ include the following: card reader, digital camera, external hard drive, modem, mouse, optical disc drive, printer, scanner, smartphone, speakers, USB flash drive, and webcam.



a. mainframe
b. USB port
c. server farm
d. thin client




Answer: B

The general price range for a supercomputer is ____.

The general price range for a supercomputer is ____.




a. several hundred dollars or less
b. half a million to several billion dollars
c. several hundred to several million dollars
d. several hundred to several thousand dollars





Answer: B

A ____ is an electronic device, operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory, that can accept data, process the data according to specified rules, produce information, and store the information for future use.

A ____ is an electronic device, operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory, that can accept data, process the data according to specified rules, produce information, and store the information for future use.



a. computer
b. server
c. processor
d. peripheral device`





Answer: A

The GIF format works best for images that ____.

The GIF format works best for images that ____.




a. have many different colors
b. are large enough to be compressed
c. are classifiable in series
d. have few colors





Answer: D

For what reason do web designers use responsive web design techniques?

For what reason do web designers use responsive web design techniques?



a. To ensure the contents are current and all links work properly
b. To ensure the website layout adapts to fit the screen on which it is being displayed.
c. To tag or bookmark website content.
d. To enable visitors to add comments.





Answer: B

What does GPS stand for?

What does GPS stand for?



a. general positioning system
b. general placement service
c. global positioning system
d. government piloting system





Answer: C

The web is a service of the ________.

The web is a service of the ________.




a. virtual connections server
b. e-network
c. Internet
d. cloud



Answer: C

Computers process data into ____.

Computers process data into ____.



a. storage
b. information
c. communications
d. memory




Answer: B

McKinsey and Company's trend predictions include(s)

McKinsey and Company's trend predictions include(s)



A)imagining anything as a service.
B)distributed cocreation moves into the mainstream.
C)innovation coming from the bottom of the pyramid.
D)all of the above.






Answer: D

An evolving extension of the Web in which Web content can be expressed not only in natural language, but also in a form that can be understood, interpreted, and used by intelligent computer software agents, permitting them to find, share, and integrate information more easily describes

An evolving extension of the Web in which Web content can be expressed not only in natural language, but also in a form that can be understood, interpreted, and used by intelligent computer software agents, permitting them to find, share, and integrate information more easily describes



A)Web 2.0.
B)Semantic Web.
C)Camelot Web.
D)Web 4.0.






Answer: B

Which of the following consists of the creation of high-quality content and services produced by gifted individuals using Web 2.0 technology as an enabling platform and is used to describe the future of the World Wide Web?

Which of the following consists of the creation of high-quality content and services produced by gifted individuals using Web 2.0 technology as an enabling platform and is used to describe the future of the World Wide Web?




A)Web 5.0
B)Level 2.0
C)Web 4.0
D)Web 3.0




Answer: D

Types of business activities in virtual worlds include each of the following except

Types of business activities in virtual worlds include each of the following except



A)providing services for those who build, manage, or make money with virtual properties.
B)operating a bed and breakfast in Nova Scotia.
C)conducting regular business activities.
D)creating and managing a virtual business.




Answer: B

A virtual world is

A virtual world is



A)a combination of two or more websites into a single website that provides the content of both sites to deliver a novel product to consumers.
B)a user-defined world in which people can interact, play, and do business.
C)a single point of access, through a Web browser, to critical business information located inside and outside (via Internet) an organization.
D)a social network whose major interest is business topics.




Answer: B

Capabilities and services provided by social networking sites include

Capabilities and services provided by social networking sites include




A)discussion forums.
B)viewing and sharing photos, videos, and documents.
C)blogs for discussion and dissemination of information.
D)all of the above.





Answer: D

Which of the following was Stormhoek Winery's successful marketing campaign that had volunteers, over a series of days, host dinners that included tasting Stormhoek wine?

Which of the following was Stormhoek Winery's successful marketing campaign that had volunteers, over a series of days, host dinners that included tasting Stormhoek wine?




A)Stormhoek's No Grape Before It's Time Wine Tasting Event
B)Stormhoek's Friends, Dinner, and Wine.
C)100 Geek Dinners in 100 Days.
D)Stormhoek's May Wine Days.




Answer: C

Benefits of e-auctions to buyers include

Benefits of e-auctions to buyers include




A)opportunities to find unique items.
B)optimal price setting determined by the market.
C)higher repeat purchases.
D)liquidating large quantities quickly.


Answer: A

Benefits of e-auctions to sellers include

Benefits of e-auctions to sellers include



A)convenience of bidding anywhere and any time.
B)lack of differentiation.
C)optimal price is determined by the market.
D)anonymity.




Answer: C

An auction in which the buyer places an item for bid on a request for quote system, potential suppliers bid on the job, with the price reducing sequentially, and the lowest bid wins; this describes

An auction in which the buyer places an item for bid on a request for quote system, potential suppliers bid on the job, with the price reducing sequentially, and the lowest bid wins; this describes




A)reverse auctions.
B)bidding auction system.
C)tendering system.
D)forward auctions.




Answer: A

Types of stores and malls include

Types of stores and malls include



A)pure-play stores.
B)general stores/malls.
C)specialized stores/malls.
D)all of the above.




Answer: D

Each of the following is a true statement about public e-marketplaces except

Each of the following is a true statement about public e-marketplaces except



A)public marketplaces are not regulated by the government.
B)public marketplaces are often owned by a third party.
C)public marketplaces are usually B2B markets.
D)public marketplaces serve many sellers and buyers.





Answer: A

Activities related to order aggregation and fulfillment, inventory management, purchasing from suppliers, accounting and finance, packaging, and delivery are done in what is termed the ________ of the business.

Activities related to order aggregation and fulfillment, inventory management, purchasing from suppliers, accounting and finance, packaging, and delivery are done in what is termed the ________ of the business.



A) back end
B)front end
C)intermediary
D)infrastructure





Answer: A

The portion of an e-seller's business through which customers interact, including the seller's portal, electronic catalogs, shopping cart, and payment gateway is referred to as the ________ of the business.

The portion of an e-seller's business through which customers interact, including the seller's portal, electronic catalogs, shopping cart, and payment gateway is referred to as the ________ of the business.




A)front end
B)intermediary
C)infrastructure
D)back end





Answer: A

The emergence of electronic marketplaces changed several of the processes used in trading and supply chains including

The emergence of electronic marketplaces changed several of the processes used in trading and supply chains including 




A) the ability for EC to leverage capabilities with increased effectiveness and lower transaction and distribution costs, leading to more efficient "friction-free" markets.
B) lowering information search time and cost for buyers.
C) the ability of buyers, sellers, and the virtual market to each be in a different location.
D) all of the above.




Answer: D

Traditional and electronic markets have three main functions, which include each of the following except

Traditional and electronic markets have three main functions, which include each of the following except 






A) providing an institutional infrastructure, such as a legal and regulatory framework that enables the efficient functioning of the market.
B) financing the transformation of raw materials into finished products.
C) matching buyers and sellers.
D) facilitating the exchange of information, goods, services, and payments associated with market transactions.





Answer: B

EC activities include

EC activities include 



A) trading, buy, sell, and exchange.
B) improve performance.
C) communicate, collaborate, and learn.
D) all of the above.



Answer: E

In which mental-imaging experiment would "vivid imagers" outperform "non imagers"?

In which mental-imaging experiment would "vivid imagers" outperform "non imagers"?




a. a mental two-point acuity task in which participants are asked to indicate when two imagined dots in the center of their field of vision merge
b. a mental-rotation experiment in which participants are asked whether one object can be rotated to look identical to another object
c. an image-scanning experiment in which participants are asked to mentally scan from the back to the front of the image and then press a button
d. an interference experiment in which participants are asked to detect a moving dot while imagining rotating a box by 75 degrees



Answer: A

Paivio's dual-code hypothesis proposed that

Paivio's dual-code hypothesis proposed that



a. there are two different kinds of memory: symbolic and image based.
b. dual coding interferes with remembering.
c. information that is stored as symbolic is more readily recalled than information stored as propositions.
d. semantic information is more easily stored by images than by words.





Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT evidence that some forms of imagery are spatial and not visual?

Which of the following is NOT evidence that some forms of imagery are spatial and not visual?




a. Blind people can complete mental-rotation experiments as quickly and accurately as sighted people.
b. There is no interference when people are asked to judge the brightness of a light while making a mental-rotation decision.
c. Patients who have lost the ability to detect color in perception also fail to see color in their images.
d. Patients such as L.H. may perform well on spatial imagery tasks but fail on visual imagery tasks.




Answer: D

Which of the following does NOT support the claim that mental images are stored in long-term memory by a propositional "recipe" for how to construct the image?

Which of the following does NOT support the claim that mental images are stored in long-term memory by a propositional "recipe" for how to construct the image?




a. Images with more parts take more time to create.
b. Images that are easier to describe are easier to remember.
c. People are able to control how detailed they want an image to be.
d. Words that are easier to picture are easier to remember.




Answer: D

UNLIKE pictures, mental images are

UNLIKE pictures, mental images are




a. neutral depictions.
b. organized depictions.
c. often unambiguous.
d. visual.





Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a reason why performance might improve with practice?

Which of the following is NOT a reason why performance might improve with practice?





a. Practice allows us to find the best choice among competing responses.
b. With practice, individual elements of a task draw more on our resources.
c. Memorization is facilitated by repeated exposure.
d. As each aspect of a response is automatized, more resources become available for the next aspect.




Answer: B

Divided attention requires enough mental resources to attend to both tasks. These limited mental resources include all of the following EXCEPT

Divided attention requires enough mental resources to attend to both tasks. These limited mental resources include all of the following EXCEPT



a. task-specific resources.
b. task-general resources that act like a bank account.
c. task-general tools like the response selector.
d. task-general storage space like long-term memory.






Answer: D

What is the main reason why both late and early selection models can be true?

What is the main reason why both late and early selection models can be true?



a. It has to do with visuospatial helper systems.
b. It involves neglect-like behavior in unimpaired adults.
c. The cocktail party effect no longer appears in modern life.
d. It depends on how many resources are consumed by a task.




Answer: D

In the absence of attention

In the absence of attention





a. there is no perception.
b. participants still consciously perceive stimuli if the stimuli are simple enough.
c. participants can perceive most aspects of the world but are not influenced by what they perceive.
d. stimuli may not be consciously perceived but can still have an influence on the perceiver.



Answer: D

Individuals with a lesion to the parietal lobe perform normally when asked to search for a single feature in a display (e.g., find the round shape) but have trouble when asked to find, for example, the "blue, round shape" among other shapes that are blue (but not round) and round (but not blue). What conclusion do these findings support?

Individuals with a lesion to the parietal lobe perform normally when asked to search for a single feature in a display (e.g., find the round shape) but have trouble when asked to find, for example, the "blue, round shape" among other shapes that are blue (but not round) and round (but not blue). What conclusion do these findings support?



a. Detection of features is separate from the association of those features.
b. If you cannot detect a complex object, you cannot detect its constituent parts.
c. Shapes are more difficult for the system to detect than colors.
d. Object identification takes place in the parietal lobe.



Answer: A

Which of the following is most accurate with respect to our knowledge about the fusiform face area (FFA)?

Which of the following is most accurate with respect to our knowledge about the fusiform face area (FFA)?




a. There is a general consensus that the FFA is exclusively dedicated to processing faces.
b. There is a general consensus that the FFA underlies many kinds of expertise.
c. There is an ongoing debate about the specificity of the FFA to processing faces.
d. There is an ongoing debate about the role of the FFA in identifying general categories of faces and objects.



Answer: C

Which of the following offers the most support for the idea that object recognition is viewpoint dependent?

Which of the following offers the most support for the idea that object recognition is viewpoint dependent?



a. Object recognition seems to involve a hierarchy of detectors, from feature detectors to whole object detectors.
b. When pieces of an object are missing, it is still fairly easy to recognize the object as long as the geons are still identifiable.
c. There are neurons in the "what" pathway that respond most to a certain type of object in a certain position relative to the eyes.
d. Detection of objects employs both bottom-up and top-down processes.




Answer: C

Which statement about feature nets is FALSE?

Which statement about feature nets is FALSE?





a. Network knowledge is represented in a distributed manner.
b. Recognition based on geons is viewpoint independent.
c. A network of detectors can interpret ambiguous inputs, recover from its own errors, and make inferences about barely viewed stimuli.
d. The input layer is particularly sensitive to the overall configuration of a pattern.




Answer: D

John has apperceptive agnosia. This means that he cannot

John has apperceptive agnosia. This means that he cannot



a. perceive shapes, colors, or positions of objects.
b. perceive faces.
c. recognize faces.
d. integrate perceptual information to perceive intact objects.




Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT part of how the binding problem is solved?

Which of the following is NOT part of how the binding problem is solved?




a. Systems have their own spatial maps, which they can align together.
b. Much of the information is combined in a separate area of the brain.
c. Cells from the different systems oscillate together in the same rhythm.
d.Attention directed toward the item being perceived aids binding.



Answer: B

Which of the following is true with respect to neurons in the visual regions of the brain?

Which of the following is true with respect to neurons in the visual regions of the brain?



a. All neurons are equally responsible for all facets of perception.
b. On average, only 10% of neurons in visual regions are active at a time.
c. Certain cells are specialized for detecting dots, edges, and specific line orientations.
d. Certain cells are responsible for Gestalt phenomena like proximity.




Answer: C

Which of the following statements is inaccurate?

Which of the following statements is inaccurate?




a. The early projection areas for vision are in the parietal cortex.
b. Cells in the optic nerve both transmit and analyze visual input.
c.The dorsal pathway is specialized for processing object-identification information.
d. The visual system relies on parallel processing.



Answer: A

The response of a center-surround cell

The response of a center-surround cell




a. can be altered only by light falling into the center of the cell's receptive field.
b. is not influenced by whether the light falls into the center of the cell's receptive field or the periphery.
c. tends to be in one direction (e.g., increased firing) if the stimulation is in the center of the cell's receptive field and in the opposite direction (e.g., decreased firing) if the stimulation is in the periphery of the receptive field.
d. is determined either by activation in the center of the cell's receptive field or by activation in the periphery, but not both.





Answer: C

Which of the following tasks has NOT been connected with the amygdala?

Which of the following tasks has NOT been connected with the amygdala?




a. remembering emotional events
b. feeling familiarity when seeing a close friend
c. discriminating between internal and external events
d. making decisions based on hunches




Answer: C

The all-or-none law states that

The all-or-none law states that



a. the signal traveling down a neuron's axon does not vary in size or strength.
b. all neurons performing similar functions are grouped together in the brain.
c. neurons all fire at the same rate, and so a neuron is either firing at the standard rate or not at all.
d. single-cell recording can be used only in the study of vision.





Answer: A

A patient with visual agnosia will probably show an inability to

A patient with visual agnosia will probably show an inability to



a. remember a list of words heard 1 hour before.
b. detect brief flashes of light.
c. recall the color of familiar objects (e.g., that stop signs are red).
d. identify common objects in plain view.




Answer: C

In one study, investigators monitored activity levels in a brain area (the fusiform face area, or FFA) that seems particularly responsive to pictures of faces, and also in another area (the parahippocampal place area, or PPA) that seems particularly responsive to pictures of places. Their data showed that

In one study, investigators monitored activity levels in a brain area (the fusiform face area, or FFA) that seems particularly responsive to pictures of faces, and also in another area (the parahippocampal place area, or PPA) that seems particularly responsive to pictures of places. Their data showed that




a. the activity of these areas could be predicted based simply on what stimulus was in front of the person's eyes.
b. if a picture of a face was put in front of one eye and a picture of a place in front of the other, both brain areas became highly activated.
c. brain activity in these two regions depended on what the person was consciously perceiving and not just what the stimulus was.
d. high levels of activation were detected in the FFA even when pictures of houses were shown, illustrating the flexibility of brain function.




Answer: C

When reading a story about a child shaking a piggy bank because he or she wants to buy something, we understand the reasons for this action because

When reading a story about a child shaking a piggy bank because he or she wants to buy something, we understand the reasons for this action because



a. our working memory fills in the background information.
b. all the necessary information is already present in the story.
c. the capacity of working memory is unlimited.
d. we provide additional background knowledge based on our own experience




Answer: D

Cognitive psychology is primarily concerned with which of the following?

Cognitive psychology is primarily concerned with which of the following?



a. the relationship between environmental input and behavior
b. the understanding and treatment of mental disorders
c. what we know, what we remember, and how we think
d. the physical structures of the mind




Answer: C

Which of the following was NOT one of the problems associated with introspection as a research technique?

Which of the following was NOT one of the problems associated with introspection as a research technique?



a. some thoughts are not available to the conscious mind
b. many introspective claims cannot be tested in a rigorous fashion
c. how people react to a stimulus is heavily influenced by past experience
d. thoughts and feelings cannot be meaningfully compared across individuals





Answer: D

Modern psychologists follow the lead of Immanuel Kant in arguing that the solution to the impasse between introspectionism and behaviorism lies in a method in which we begin with _____ and then proceed to _______

Modern psychologists follow the lead of Immanuel Kant in arguing that the solution to the impasse between introspectionism and behaviorism lies in a method in which we begin with _____ and then proceed to _______



a. animal models; human models
b. internal causes; likely behavioral outcomes
c. observable facts; likely internal causes
d. the computer as a metaphor; the human mind




Answer: C

Working memory acts to

Working memory acts to




a. store an unlimited amount of information
b. store a limited amount of information for an unlimited amount of time
c. keep relevant information active for a short period of time
d. store relevant information so it does not influence long-term memory



Answer: C

When a competitor cuts its price, a company is most likely to decide to ________ if it believes it will not lose much market share or would lose too much profit by cutting its own price.

When a competitor cuts its price, a company is most likely to decide to ________ if it believes it will not lose much market share or would lose too much profit by cutting its own price.




A) stabilize its production costs
B) reduce its marketing costs
C) maintain its current prices and profit margin
D) increase its marketing budget to raise the perceived value of the product
E) increase its production costs to improve the quality of the product




Answer: C

Which of the following is a reason for a company to raise its prices?

Which of the following is a reason for a company to raise its prices?




A) to address the issue of over demand for a product
B) to win a larger share of the market
C) to use excess capacity
D) to boost sales volume
E) to balance out decreasing costs



Answer: A

Competitors are most likely to react to a price change when ________.

Competitors are most likely to react to a price change when ________.



A) a large number of competitors are involved
B) the product is uniform
C) the buyers are not well informed about product features
D) buyers are not well informed about price differences
E) the market has a pure monopoly




Answer: B

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause price escalation in foreign markets?

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause price escalation in foreign markets?




A) the additional costs of product modifications
B) the additional costs of shipping and insurance
C) the additional costs of import tariffs and taxes
D) the additional costs of improving a country's infrastructure
E) exchange rate fluctuations





Answer: D

There are many reasons why a firm might consider cutting its price. All of the following are among them EXCEPT ________.

There are many reasons why a firm might consider cutting its price. All of the following are among them EXCEPT ________.





A) excess capacity
B) falling demand in the face of strong price competition
C) a drive to dominate the market through lower costs
D) a drive to reduce market share
E) a drive to gain market share and cut costs through volume




Answer: D