NAIMMCQ: December 2016

Archive for December 2016

An email contract is

a. Void
b. Voidable
c. A violation of the Statute of Frauds
d. Valid and enforceable, assuming all the elements of a contract are present

Answer: D

Inferior performance is:

a. The same as no performance at all
b. Is simply less than average performance
c. Performance which is almost complete
d. None of the above

Answer: A

Big High Drug Store contracts to hire Anna Sue as a pharmacist upon graduation in May, but she must receive her Pharmacist's license by the next December. This contract contains a(n)

a. Covenant
b. Condition subsequent
c. Condition precedent
d. Implied condition

Answer: B

Squeegie, 17 years old, buys a car for $20,000.00 cash from Fast Eddie's Used Cars. A week later Squeegie is stopped at a red light when he is rear-ended by Wingnut. Squeegie has the wrecked car, now worth $200.00, towed back to Fast Eddie's. Squeegie will

a. Be able to disaffirm the contract and get his $20,000.00 back since he was a minor and returned the wrecked car
b. Be able to disaffirm the contract but only get $200.00 back
c. Won't be able to disaffirm his contract since his conduct was wanton
d. Will win a lawsuit against Fast Eddie for dealing with a minor

Answer: A

Generally, Consideration must be:

a. Of "Legally Sufficient Value"
b. A "Bargained-for-Exchange"
c. Of "Cash Money" only
d. All of the above
e. A and B above only

Answer: E

Jenna saw a vase in a store. A tag on the vase said, "Genuine Crystal, $125." Jenna said to Owen, the owner of the store, "I'll buy this vase for $125." Owen refused to sell the vase top Jenna. In a lawsuit brought by Jenna against Owen,

a. Jenna wins because a contract was formed when she said she would buy the vase
b. Jenna wins because the vase was unique
c. Owen wins because he rejected Jenna's offer
d. Owen wins because the contract was not written

Answer: C

Which of the following statements concerning the effectiveness of an offeree's rejections and an offeror's revocation of an offer are ordinarily true?

An Offeree's Rejection is Effective When An Offereor's Revocation is Effective When
a. Received by the offeror Sent by the offeror
b. Sent by the offeree Received by the offeree
c. Sent by the offeree Sent by the offeror
d. Received by the offeror Received by the offeree

Answer: B

CitiBank makes a mistake at an auction which costs the CitiBank $350,000.00. After the final bid is accepted and the hammer has fallen, CitiBank realizes its mistake. CitiBank tries to overturn the final bid in a lawsuit.

a. CitiBank wins because the mistake is so serious that enforcing the bid would be unconscionable
b. CitiBank wins because it would be unjust to allow the winning bid to benefit the high bidder by $350,000.00
c. CitiBank loses because of the legal theory of Bilateral Mistake
d. CitiBank loses because it made a Unilateral Mistake

Answer: D

The City announces a plan to build a multimillion dollar tennis center on Richland Road. Adjacent land values skyrocket. A local developer pays a premium price for an adjacent parcel of land. The City decides not to build the tennis center. The adjacent land values plummet, costing the local developer a million dollars. He sues the City for costing him a million dollars. The developer

a. Wins his lawsuit against the City because the City's actions were negligent
b. Wins his lawsuit against the City because he relied on the City's publicly announced plan to build the Tennis Center
c. Loses the lawsuit against the City because he was an incidental beneficiary of the City's plan to build the Tennis Center
d. Loses the lawsuit against the City because "detrimental reliance" doesn't apply to public contracts

Answer: C

Sara and Jesse are getting married. They discuss and orally agree on the disposition of all property in the event that the marriage is not successful. During divorce proceedings, Jesse states that the couple had an agreement as to the disposition of property. Is the agreement enforceable?

a. Yes; it was an agreement made in contemplation of marriage
b. No, the agreement was not in writing
c. Yes, so long as the terms were reasonably specific or ascertainable
d. No; the agreement is contrary to public policy

Answer: B

An award of __________ performance orders the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract.

a. Specific
b. Substantial
c. Sequestered
d. Salient

Answer: A

Alpha Nu Theta verbally orders $3.500.00 of screen-printed t-shirts for their famous ANT Race contest from "Printin' On Tees." Once the t-shirts are ready, Alpha Nu Theta refuses to complete the purchase saying that since they didn't sign a purchase order, they aren't required to complete their end of the bargain. If they are sued for Breach of Contract, Alpha Nu Theta

a. Wins, since the Statute of Frauds requires all commercial contracts to be in writing
b. Wins since the Statute of Frauds requires that all contracts for the sale of goods over $500.00 be in writing
c. Loses since there is no fraud involved in this transaction
d. Loses since they ordered specially manufactured goods which were of no real value to anyone else
e. Loses since "Printin' On Tees" should have realized the Humane Society wouldn't allow ANT racing by drunk college students

Answer: D

According to Mr. Cochran, courts do not enforce "gift" contracts because

a. For almost a thousand years courts have not enforced such contracts
b. "gift" contracts tend to have a dramatic economic effect on the economy
c. A person's word is their bond
d. "gift" contracts don't help the economy; they are merely a transfer of wealth

Answer: D

A __________ is a person who agrees to pay a debt if the primary debtor does not.

a. Creditor
b. Mortgagor
c. Borrower
d. Guarantor

Answer: D

You contract with the Outhouse Mice to perform 3 sets at your spring formal for $10,000.00. Other than the fact that they were drunk and sick at your formal, their sets were only 15 minutes long each. They want full payment; you don't want to pay them anything. You both eventually agree that they will be paid $1,000.00, mostly because they were the funniest drunk and sick people anyone had ever seen. This compromise would

a. Not be enforceable because the contract was ambiguous
b. Not be enforceable because rock stars are supposed to only look drunk, not be drunk
c. Be enforceable because this was a unilateral mistake
d. Be enforceable because this was an Accord

Answer: D

You contract to rent a room at the inn for 2 months while you are in summer school. You drop out after the first day when you find out Mr. Cochran is going to be the professor. You get another person to take your place on the contract and fulfill your obligations under the contract with the full agreement of all parties. This is

a. Promissory estoppel
b. Part performance
c. A novation
d. A jurat of acknowledgment
e. Como esta usted

Answer: C

When a client accepts the services of an accountant without an agreement concerning payment, the result is

a. An implied-in-fact contract
b. An implied-in-law contract
c. An express contract
d. No contract

Answer: A

An oral contract for the sale of land is:

a. Void
b. Enforceable
c. Voidable
d. Unenforceable
e. Implied

Answer: D

Jack and Jill were discussing business over lunch when they agreed on the sale of some goods. Because neither of them had any paper handy, Jack wrote the following on a napkin: "Jill agrees to purchase from Jack, 1,000 widgets to be delivered on July 1, 2011, at a cost of $10,000, payable on delivery." Jill and Jack both signed the napkin. Jack delivered the widgets per the contract, but Jill refuses to pay for them. If Jack sues Jill for the price of the goods, the most likely result is which of the following?

a. Jill will win because this writing is not sufficient under the Statute of Frauds.
b. Jack will win because the writing is sufficient under the Statute of Frauds.
c. Jill will win because this is a formal contract.
d. Jack will win because the Statute of Frauds does not apply to this situation.

Answer: B

If a contract requires the occurrence of an event before a party is obligated to perform a contractual duty, this is a condition _________.

a. Precedent
b. Subsequent
c. Conclusive
d. None of the foregoing

Answer: A

Consists of who (sender) communicates what (message) to whom (receiver, why (purpose) the communicator does it, where (setting), when (time, and how (way) it is done.

a. Communication
b. Context
c. Network
d. Environment

Answer: B

Occurs when there is positive verbal and negative nonverbal communication, or vice versa.

a. Bypassing
b. Grouphate
c. Hindsight Bias
d. Mixed Message

Answer: D

____ is sharing meaning with others without using words.

a. Nonverbal Communication
b. Talking
c. Verbal Communication
d. Communication

Answer: A

When you assume that everyone in your group has the same meaning for a word.

a. Bypassing
b. Grouphate
c. Common Sense
d. Hindsight Bias

Answer: A

Words are ______, so meaning is not contained in words.

a. Language
b. Talking
c. Communication
d. Symbols

Answer: D

are representations of referents - whatever the _ refers to.

a. Language
b. Talking
c. Symbols
d. Communication

Answer: C

____ is a structured system of symbols for sharing meaning.

a. Language
b. Talking
c. Symbols
d. Communication

Answer: A

______ is a process because changes in events and relationships are part of a continuous flow.

a. Nonverbal Communication
b. Talking
c. Interacting
d. Communication

Answer: D

(Dimension) Refers to how messages define or redefine the relationship among group members.

a. Content
b. Relationship

Answer: B

Dimension) Refers to the information transmitted.

(Dimension) Refers to the information transmitted.

a. Content
b. Relationship

Answer: A

__ as a transaction also means that all parties influence each other.

a. Communication
b. Talking
c. Interacting
d. Nonverbal Communication

Answer: A

____ is a transaction. Each person is both a sender and receiver, not just one or the other, providing constant feedback.

a. Talking
b. Communication
c. Interacting
d. Nonverbal Communication

Answer: B

This may influence us to view competent communication as mere common sense once we have received communication training.

a. Know it all syndrome
b. Premonition Bias
c. Hindsight knowledge
d. Hindsight bias

Answer: D

The I-Knew-It-Already tendency.

a. Know it all syndrome
b. Hindsight bias
c. Hindsight knowledge
d. Premonition Bias

Answer: B

Without understanding the complexities of the ______ process, no amount of skills training will be meaningful, and it may be harmful.

a. Group
b. Nonverbal Communication
c. Verbal Communication
d. Communication

Answer: D

_____ is a tool that can be used to help solve most problems that arise in groups.

a. Symbolism
b. Nonverbal Communication
c. Communication
d. Verbal Communication

Answer: C

Groups whose members are connected by electronic technology.

a. Mediated Teams
b. Virtual Teams
c. Virtual Groups
d. Mediated Groups

Answer: B

What injury can occur when the neck undergoes sudden acceleration and deceleration (such as in a car accident)?

A. herniated disc
B. whiplash
C. spondylolisthesis
D. spondylolysis

Answer: B

Sprains occur in what type of tissue?

A. muscles
B. tendons
C. ligaments
D. all of the above

Answer: A

What musculoskeletal problem causes the most absences from work?

A. ankle sprain
B. carpal tunnel syndrome
C. low back pain
D. herniated disc

Answer: C

Which of the following contributes to increased spinal loading?

A. rotation (as compared to flexion)
B. asymmetrical frontal loads
C. increased lifting speeds
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

Spinal relaxation phenomenon explains what?

A. inactivity of spinal extensors during full flexion
B. inactivity of spinal flexors during full flexion
C. sit and reach flexibility test
D. yoga

Answer: A

What is the dominant force on the spine during activities requiring backward leaning of the trunk, such as rappelling?

A. compression
B. tension
C. shear
D. torsion

Answer: C

What type of articulation occurs between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae?

A. cartilaginous
B. non-axial gliding
C. hinge
D. condyloid

Answer: A

Attachment to the ribs limits range of motion in which vertebrae?

A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral

Answer: B

In anatomical position, where is the center of gravity located relative to the spine?

A. posterior
B. anterior
C. lateral
D. inferior

Answer: B

What action(s) do posterior trunk muscles cause when they contract unilaterally?

A. extension
B. hyperextension
C. lateral flexion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: C

Which abdominal muscles cause rotation to the left?

A. left internal oblique
B. right external oblique
C. left rectus abdominis
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Anterior pelvic tilt facilitates what type of spinal motion?

A. flexion
B. extension
C. lateral flexion
D. rotation

Answer: A

Which type of exaggerated curve is often caused by osteoporosis?

A. lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. all of the above

Answer: B

Lateral deviations in spinal curvature are called what?

A. lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. all of the above

Answer: C

What is the enlarged cervical portion of the supraspinous ligament called?

A. anterior longitudinal ligament
B. posterior longitudinal ligament
C. ligamentum flavum
D. ligamentum nuchae

Answer: D

What causes the pumping action (influx and outflux of water containing nutrients and waste) of the intervertebral discs in adults?

A. blood supply
B. body motion
C. neural activity
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: B

What is the most common type of spinal loading during daily activities?

A. compression
B. tension
C. shear
D. torsion

Answer: A

The most superior cervical vertebrae is called what?

A. atlas
B. axis
C. atlanto-axial
D. none of the above

Answer: A

Unusually high incidences of pars interarticularis fractures have been documented in which of the following groups of athletes?

A. female gymnasts
B. interior football linemen
C. weight lifters
D. all of the above

Answer: D

What is the most common type of vertebral fracture?

A. fracture to the coccyx
B. stress fracture of the pars interarticularis
C. cervical fracture
D. none of the above

Answer: B

Which of the following are potential consequences of spinal fractures?

A. paralysis
B. death
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

Transverse or spinous process fractures may result from which of the following?

A. extremely forceful contraction of the attached muscles
B. the sustenance of a hard blow to the back of the spine
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

A typical geriatric disc has a fluid content that is reduced by approximately how much?

A. 5%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 85%

Answer: B

What joint is usually the culprit in low back pain?

A. sacroiliac
B. lumbosacral
C. sacrococcygeal
D. acetabulum

Answer: B

What is the result when part of the nucleus pulposus of the disc protrudes and presses on a nerve?

A. stress fracture
B. acute fracture
C. herniated disc
D. contusion

Answer: C

The rectus abdominis causes flexion when contracted ________.

A. unilaterally
B. bilaterally
C. eccentrically
D. all of the above

Answer: C

Lack of flexibility in which of the following muscle groups can cause anterior pelvic tilt?

A. hip flexors
B. erector spinae
C. abdominals
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

The sacral region of the spine is fused to which of the following bones?

A. the ilium
B. the ischium
C. the pubis
D. all of the above

Answer: D

What type of joint occurs between the superior and inferior articulating facets of adjacent vertebrae?

A. cartilaginous
B. non-axial gliding
C. hinge
D. condyloid

Answer: B

Which vertebrae are the largest?

A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral

Answer: C

The spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae inhibit movement in which plane?

A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. all of the above

Answer: A

The articulations between adjacent vertebral bodies are which of the following types of joints?

A. pivot joints
B. hinge joints
C. symphysis joints
D. none of the above

Answer: C

The condition of exaggerated thoracic curvature is known as which of the following?

A. lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. none of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following is not true about lordosis?

A. often accompanied by anterior pelvic tilt
B. can be caused by poor abdominal flexibility
C. often accompanies weight gain and pregnancy
D. all of the above are true

Answer: B

Which of the following spinal curves are referred to as primary curves?

A. the thoracic and cervical curves
B. the cervical and lumbar curves
C. the cervical and sacral curves
D. the thoracic and sacral curves

Answer: D

Which of the following spinal curves are referred to as primary curves?

A. the thoracic and cervical curves
B. the cervical and lumbar curves
C. the cervical and sacral curves
D. the thoracic and sacral curves

Answer: D

Which statement is not true about the intervertebral discs?

A. act as cushions between the vertebrae
B. account for approximately 1/4 of the height of the spine
C. are responsible for spinal movement due to compression
D. all of the above are true

Answer: D

Which of the following helps the spine absorb shock?

A. spinal curves
B. intervertebral discs
C. ligaments
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Which part of the vertebrae bears the most weight?

A. lamina
B. superior articulating facet
C. body
D. inferior articulating facet

Answer: C

Which of the following vertebral regions has the best range of motion?

A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral

Answer: A

Movement of the spine occurs in which plane(s)?

A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. all of the above

Answer: D

What is the anatomical name for the big toe?

A. pollicis
B. hallux
C. digiti maximi
D. digiti minimi

Answer: B

Which of the following does not attach to the calcaneus?

A. sartorius
B. gastrocnemius
C. plantaris
D. soleus

Answer: A

Symptoms of plantar fasciitis include which of the following?

A. pain in the arch
B. pain in the heel
C. pain on top of the foot
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

During walking, which of the following actions is combined to cause supination?

A. dorsiflexion; eversion; and abduction
B. dorsiflexion; inversion; and abduction
C. plantar flexion; inversion; and abduction
D. plantar flexion; inversion; and adduction

Answer: D

The strong layer of fibrous tissue which covers the plantar muscles of the foot is called what?

A. plantar fascia
B. plantar flexion
C. longitudinal ligament
D. plantar interossei

Answer: A

Which of the following does not bear weight?

A. femur
B. tibia
C. fibula
D. talus

Answer: C

Patellofemoral pain syndrome is likely associated with what?

A. weakness of vastus medialis relative to vastus lateralis
B. weakness of vastus lateralis relative to vastus medialis
C. weakness of biceps femoris relative to semitendinosus
D. weakness of semitendinosus relative to biceps femoris

Answer: A

Runner's knee is associated with which of the following structures?

A. lateral meniscus
B. ACL
C. iliotibial band
D. medial meniscus

Answer: C

Which of the following statements is true regarding ACL injuries?

A. occur more frequently in women than in men
B. occur more frequently in men than in women
C. occurrence is approximately equal between men and women
D. frequency between men and women is sport specific

Answer: A

Which of the following statements is true regarding ACL injuries?

A. occur more frequently in during player contact
B. occur more frequently during non-contact
C. occurrence is approximately equal between contact and non-contact
D. it is unknown whether contact or non-contact ACL injuries are more frequent

Answer: B

The medial and lateral collateral ligaments limit which type of knee motion?

A. knee hyperextension
B. forward and backward sliding of the femur on the tibia during knee flexion and extension
C. lateral knee motion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: C

What is the largest and most complex joint in the body?

A. hip
B. shoulder
C. knee
D. ankle

Answer: C

Which of the following causes hip abduction?

A. gluteus medius
B. gluteus minimus
C. gluteus maximus
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following causes hip adduction?

A. adductor magnus
B. adductor longus
C. gracilis
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

Where is the weakest point of the femur?

A. head
B. neck
C. shaft
D. greater trochanter

Answer: B

Which of the following characterizes a "bow-legged" condition?

A. femoral varus and tibial valgus
B. femoral valgus and tibial varus
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: B

Which of the following is the most typical cause of ankle sprain?

A. forced inversion of the ankle during landing while the foot is plantar flexed
B. forced eversion of the ankle during landing while the foot is dorsiflexed
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: A

Fractures in the ankle region occur most often to which of the following structures?

A. the lateral malleolus
B. the medial malleolus
C. the talus
D. none of the above

Answer: A

Which of the following is/are nonaxial joint(s)?

A. tarsometatarsal joint
B. intermetatarsal joint
C. subtalar joint
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following is the most common of all knee injuries?

A. rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament
B. rupture of the medial collateral ligament
C. tear of the lateral meniscus
D. tear of the medial meniscus

Answer: D

Which of the following statements is/are true?

A. When the knee undergoes a significant amount of flexion, it is necessary for the femur to slide forward on the tibia in order to prevent its rolling off of the tibial plateau.
B. During extension, the femur must slide backwards on the tibia.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following conditions must be met for rotation of the tibia relative to the femur?

A. the knee is not bearing weight
B. the knee is in flexion
C. the knee is in extension
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments limit which type of knee motion?

A. knee hyperextension
B. forward and backward sliding of the femur on the tibia during knee flexion and extension
C. lateral knee motion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following inserts on the patella?

A. hamstrings
B. quadriceps
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: B

Which muscle does not affect both the hip and the knee?

A. rectus femoris
B. vastus intermedius
C. biceps femoris
D. semimembranosus

Answer: B

Knee extensors cross the joint _ to the _ axis.

A. anterior; anteroposterior
B. posterior; anteroposterior
C. anterior; mediolateral
D. posterior; mediolateral

Answer: C

Which knee ligament is most likely to be damaged from a lateral blow?

A. medial collateral
B. lateral collateral
C. anterior cruciate (ACL)
D. posterior cruciate

Answer: A

Which of the following muscles serves to "unlock" the knee from full extension?

A. plantaris
B. gracilis
C. popliteus
D. sartorius

Answer: C

Which of the following is not true about the menisci in the knee joint?

A. made of cartilage
B. larger surface area to distribute load
C. absorb shock
D. all of the above are true

Answer: D

What is/are the purpose(s) of the patella?

A. increase the angle between the tendon and tibia
B. increase the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps
C. to protect the anterior aspect of the knee
D. all of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following is/are two-joint muscle(s)?

A. rectus femoris
B. sartorius
C. pectineus
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following statements is/are true?

A. The iliopsoas complex is the major flexor of the hip.
B. Two-joint muscles function more effectively at one joint when the position of the other joint stretches the muscle slightly.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following is part of the pelvic girdle?

A. the ilium
B. the ischium
C. the pubis
D. all of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following is not a hamstring muscle?

A. semimembranosus
B. semitendinosus
C. biceps femoris
D. gluteus maximus

Answer: D

In the formula v2 = v1, what is known about acceleration?

A. acceleration = -9.81 m/s2
B. acceleration = 0
C. both A and B
D. need more information

Answer: B

The laws of constant acceleration can be applied to which of the following?

A. horizontal component of projectile motion
B. vertical component of projectile motion
C. resultant of projectile motion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following represents horizontal acceleration of a projectile?

A. -9.81 m/s2
B. -9.81 m/s
C. 0 m/s2
D. 0 m/s

Answer: C

Which of the following represents vertical acceleration of a projectile?

A. -9.81 m/s2
B. -9.81 m/s
C. 0 m/s2
D. 0 m/s

Answer: A

Why do elite long jumpers have take-off angles far less than the optimal 45°?

A. take-off velocity is higher during lower take-off angles
B. relative take-off height is zero
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: A

The shape of a projectile's trajectory is influenced by which of the following?

A. angle of projection
B. air resistance
C. speed of projection
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Neglecting the effect of air resistance, which of the following is/are true regarding the horizontal component of projectile velocity?

A. remains constant throughout flight
B. changes according to gravitational acceleration
C. equal to 0
D. both A and B

Answer: A

Which of the following is/are true regarding the apex in the trajectory of a projectile?

A. it is the highest point in the flight
B. vertical velocity is 0
C. direction changes
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

Which of the following components of projectile is affected by gravity?

A. vertical component
B. horizontal component
C. both A and B
D. depends on the individual situation

Answer: A

The negative sign in front of the acceleration due to gravity (-9.81 m/s2) can mean which of the following?

A. the projectile is traveling down and speeding up (negative direction)
B. the projectile is traveling up and slowing down (negative acceleration)
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

What quantity is calculated as the inverse of speed?

A. velocity
B. acceleration
C. pace
D. none of the above

Answer: C

Why does running downhill tend to increase running speed?

A. increased stride length
B. increased stride frequency
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: A

What factor(s) distinguishes elite cross-country skiers from non-elite performers?

A. stride or cycle length
B. stride or cycle frequency
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: A

The meter is the unit of measurement for which of the following?

A. distance
B. displacement
C. speed
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following is/are used to indicate direction of displacement?

A. right
B. negative
C. North
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

A ball is kicked with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 30°. Neglecting air resistance, what is the speed of the ball at landing?

A. 10 m/s
B. 10 m/s multiplied by the sine of 30 degrees
C. 10 m/s multiplied by the cosine of 30 degrees
D. none of the above

Answer: A

A ball is tossed vertically upward from a height of 2 m with an initial velocity of 10 m/s. Just before the ball hits the ground, its velocity will be what?

A. 10 m/s
B. less than 10 m/s
C. greater than 10 m/s
D. not possible to predict

Answer: C

Which of the following factors typically exerts the most influence on the horizontal displacement obtained by a projectile?

A. projection angle
B. relative height of projection
C. initial speed of projection
D. initial acceleration of projection

Answer: C

When a long jump performance is analyzed, which of the following is likely to be of the most interest?

A. the average velocity of the jumper during the run-up
B. the instantaneous velocity of the jumper at takeoff
C. the average velocity of the jumper during the flight
D. the instantaneous velocity of the jumper at landing

Answer: B

What is the average velocity of a cyclist who covers 5 miles in 30 minutes?

A. 5 mi/hr
B. 10 mi/hr
C. 30 mi/hr
D. 60 mi/hr

Answer: B

Which of the following statements is true regarding objects projected from the same level as they land?

A. time up and time down are equal
B. angle of decent is equal to angle of takeoff
C. both A and B
D. all of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following affects the time that a horizontally projected object remains in the air?

A. weight
B. mass
C. projection height
D. all of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following is an example of projectile motion?

A. a badminton shuttlecock during flight
B. a long jumper while in the air
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

A ball rolling across a field with an acceleration of -0.5 m/s2 rolls 12.5 m and then comes to a stop after 8 seconds. What was the ball's initial speed?

A. 4 m/s
B. 16 m/s
C. 12.5 m/s
D. 6.25 m/s

Answer: A

If the velocity of a sailboat changes from 4 m/s to 2 m/s over a period of time, what is true of the sailboat's acceleration?

A. it is positive
B. it is negative
C. it is equal to zero
D. it is equal to 2 knots/hr

Answer: B

It takes a swimmer 1 hour to cross a lake that is 1/2 mile wide. What is true of the swimmer's acceleration?

A. it is 1/2 mi/hr
B. it is 1 mi/hr
C. it is equal to velocity squared
D. it cannot be determined from the information given

Answer: D

Once a projectile is airborne, it is affected by which of the following?

A. gravity
B. air resistance
C. release velocity
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

What factor(s) distinguishes elite sprinters from non-elite performers?

A. stride length
B. stride frequency
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: B

In a 5K road race, the finish line is also the starting line. What does 5K represent?

A. distance
B. displacement
C. speed
D. velocity

Answer: A

Marion Jones changes her velocity from 8 m/s to 11 m/s. Gail Devers changes hers from 7 m/s to 10 m/s. Who has the higher acceleration?

A. Marion
B. Gail
C. acceleration equal for both
D. need more information

Answer: D

When final velocity is larger than initial velocity, the acceleration is what?

A. zero
B. negative
C. positive
D. average

Answer: C

A runner moving at a velocity of 6 m/s increases the velocity in a 2 s time interval to a rate of 10 m/s. What is the rate of acceleration?

A. 4 m/s2
B. 4 m/s
C. 2 m/s2
D. - 2 m/s2

Answer: C

A runner completes 1 full lap around a 400 meter track. What is her displacement?

A. 400 meters
B. 400 meters × 2p
C. zero
D. need more information

Answer: C

Which of the following is/are scalar quantity(ies)?

A. distance
B. speed
C. displacement
D. both A and B

Answer: D

In sport, which measure is more important or relevant?

A. distance
B. displacement
C. depends on the situation
D. none of the above are important

Answer: C

Which of the following is not a kinematic quantity?

A. distance
B. displacement
C. acceleration
D. force

Answer: D

Linear distance traveled per unit of time describes what?

A. displacement
B. velocity
C. acceleration
D. speed

Answer: D

The Greek letter ? (delta) is used to represent what?

A. time
B. displacement
C. distance
D. change in

Answer: D

If velocity is constant, then acceleration is what?

A. zero
B. constant, but not necessarily zero
C. changing
D. need more information

Answer: A

Vector mechanics apply to which of the following?

A. displacement
B. velocity
C. speed
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

When net muscle torque and joint movement occur in the same direction, what type of contraction occurs?

A. concentric
B. eccentric
C. isometric
D. isotonic

Answer: A

Which one of the following incorrectly identifies the parts of a lever within the human body?

A. a bone is the rigid bar
B. a joint is the axis of rotation
C. a muscle insertion provides the point of force
D. COM of the moving segment is the point of resistance
E. all of the above are correct

Answer: E

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding postural sway?

A. it affects balance in the elderly
B. it is reduced by widening the BOS to a certain point
C. it is increased by putting one foot in front of the other
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

If disruption of stability is the desired outcome, which of the following should be observed?

A. lower COM
B. increase base of support
C. increase friction
D. move COM to edge of BOS

Answer: D

Which of the following can increase base of support?

A. widen stance
B. add more points of contact (i.e. 3-point stance to 4-point stance)
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

The ability to control equilibrium defines what?

A. stability
B. balance
C. mobility
D. center of mass

Answer: B

What will happen to the COM of a human body if the arms are raised up overhead?

A. it will move up
B. it will move down
C. it will not change
D. need more information to predict

Answer: A

Why do skilled high jumpers lower their COM on the last step?

A. to increase time of support between foot and ground
B. to increase vertical velocity at take-off
C. to increase impulse at take-off
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

What is the importance of segmental center of mass to the lever systems of the human body?

A. segmental COM will follow a parabolic path when projected
B. segmental COM is the point of resistance (where weight vector is drawn) and therefore determines the length of the resistance arm
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: B

Which of the following is/are true regarding center of mass?

A. in a spherical ball with evenly distributed mass, it is in the exact center
B. it is the point around which a body's weight is equally balanced regardless of body position
C. it may be located outside an object or body
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

Which of the following is/are true regarding dynamic equilibrium?

A. applies to bodies in motion
B. first identified by D 'Alembert
C. both A and B
D. there is no such thing as dynamic equilibrium

Answer: C

Which type of equipment provides constant velocity?

A. isotonic
B. free weights
C. Nautilus
D. Isokinetic

Answer: D

What is the proposed advantage of Nautilus resistance equipment over free weights?

A. resistance varies over the range of motion with Nautilus equipment
B. resistance varies over the range of motion with free weights
C. muscle force requirements change over the range of motion with Nautilus equipment
D. none of the above is advantageous

Answer: A

Which of the following is/are function(s) of antagonist muscles?

A. control velocity of movement
B. enhance stability of the joint
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following is/are true regarding a force couple?

A. created by equal forces on opposite sides of an axis
B. created by forces acting in the same angular direction
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

Which statement is true regarding moment arm?

A. Moment arm is largest when the angle of pull on a bone is 90°.
B. Changes in moment arm directly affect joint muscle torque.
C. For torque to remain constant, more force must be produced when moment arm decreases.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

Which of the following phrases is/are synonymous with torque?

A. moment of force
B. rotary force
C. moment arm
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

In which of the following situations is maximal stability desirable?

A. a swimmer's starting position on the blocks before a race
B. a Sumo wrestler's crouched defensive stance
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

Answer: B

Which of the following quantities is zero for an object in static equilibrium?

A. momentum
B. kinetic energy
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

Answer: C

Which of the following will benefit mobility?

A. increase mass
B. increase base of support
C. increase friction
D. raise center of gravity

Answer: D

Which of the following does not increase stability?

A. lower the COG
B. increase size of base of support
C. decrease mass
D. increase friction

Answer: C

In analyzing the human body as a projectile, which of the following quantities follows a parabolic path?

A. the center of mass
B. the center of volume
C. the navel
D. this varies with the individual performance

Answer: A

Which of the following must be true for an object to be in a state of static equilibrium?

A. the sum of all vertical forces acting on the object must be equal to zero
B. the sum of all horizontal forces acting on the object must be equal to zero
C. the sum of all torques acting on the object must be equal to zero
D. all of the above must be true

Answer: D

Which of the following factors influences the amount of torque produced by muscles at a joint?

A. the amounts of tension generated by the muscles
B. the arrangement of the muscles around the joint
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

Answer: C

Which of the following affects the force-generating capability of a muscle?

A. the muscle length and cross-sectional area
B. the angle and distance from the joint center of the tendon attachment to bone
C. the velocity of muscle shortening
D. all of the above

Answer: D

The amount of torque which must by generated by the biceps brachii at the elbow in order to maintain the arm in a particular position is 50 Nm. If the biceps attaches to the radius at a perpendicular distance of 3 cm from the joint center at the elbow, how much force must the muscle produce?

A. 1667 N
B. 17 N
C. 150 N
D. 1.5 N

Answer: A

When the elbow is extended and the elbow flexors contract, which of the component forces acts in addition to the rotary component?

A. the stabilizing component of muscle force
B. the dislocating component of muscle force
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: A

When a muscle contracts at a joint, which of the following affects torque?

A. the rotary component of muscle force
B. the stabilizing component of muscle force
C. the dislocating component of muscle force
D. none of the above

Answer: A

The relative efficiency of a lever is proportional to which of the following?

A. mechanical advantage of the lever
B. length of the force arm
C. length of the resistance arm
D. the amount of force needed to move the lever

Answer: A

A claw-tooth hammer being used to pry up a nail is an example of which class of lever?

A. 1st class
B. 2nd class
C. 3rd class
D. not a lever

Answer: A

Which of the following will improve leverage?

A. increase force arm
B. decrease resistance arm
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

A seesaw is an example of which class of lever?

A. 1st class
B. 2nd class
C. 3rd class
D. not a lever

Answer: A

A wheelbarrow is an example of which class of lever?

A. 1st class
B. 2nd class
C. 3rd class
D. not a lever

Answer: B

Third class lever systems favor which of the following?

A. speed
B. range of motion
C. strength
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

The resistance arm (RA) will always be longer than the force arm (FA) in what class lever?

A. 1st class
B. 2nd class
C. 3rd class
D. none of the above

Answer: C

A 30 kg child sits on the right end of a see-saw 1 m from the axis. If a 20 kg child sits on the left end of the see-saw 2 m from the axis, what will happen?

A. the see-saw will tilt to the right
B. the see-saw will tilt to the left
C. the see-saw will balance
D. need more information to predict outcome

Answer: B

In the human body, most of the lever systems formed by muscles pulling on bones are what class?

A. 1st class
B. 2nd class
C. 3rd class
D. no particular class is dominant

Answer: C

Which of the following is a characteristic of torque?

A. it is a vector quantity
B. it is characterized by magnitude
C. it is characterized by direction
D. all of the above

Answer: D

Torque is the angular analogue of what?

A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. impulse

Answer: B

The perpendicular distance between the line of force and the axis defines what?

A. torque
B. fulcrum
C. moment arm
D. none of the above

Answer: C

Which of the following is a correct unit of mechanical power?

A. Joules
B. Watts
C. kg-m
D. kg/m

Answer: B

Which of the following is/are correct formula(s) for mechanical power?

A. P = W/t
B. P = Fd/t
C. P = Fv
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

Negative mechanical work involves which of the following?

A. net torque and angular motion are same direction
B. net torque and angular motion are in different directions
C. concentric muscle contraction
D. none of the above

Answer: B

The formula for mechanical work is the product of which of the following?

A. force and displacement
B. force and time
C. acceleration and time
D. power and displacement

Answer: A

Which of the following affects the coefficient of restitution between a tennis racket and tennis ball?

A. how long the ball has been out of the can
B. how many times the ball has been hit
C. tightness of the grip
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: E

Which of the following is closest to a perfectly elastic impact?

A. modeling clay dropped on a hard surface
B. modeling clay dropped on a trampoline
C. superball dropped on a hard surface
D. superball dropped on a trampoline

Answer: C

What happens to momentum when an impulse acts on a system?

A. momentum is conserved
B. momentum is changed
C. impulse does not affect momentum
D. all of the above are possible

Answer: B

Which of the following is a correct unit for linear momentum?

A. N·m
B. N·m/s
C. kg·m
D. kg·m/s

Answer: D

How does wearing gloves increase the friction between the hands and the bat?

A. changes µk
B. changes µs
C. changes R
D. friction is not increased

Answer: B

How does adding weight to the back of a pickup increase the friction between the tires and the icy road?

A. changes µk
B. changes µs
C. changes R
D. friction is not increased

Answer: C

Which of the following relationships is always true?

A. µk < µs
B. µs < µk
C. µk = µs
D. none of the above

Answer: A

Which of the following is/are true statement(s) regarding the law of gravitation?

A. All bodies are attracted to one another with a force proportional to the product of their masses.
B. All bodies are attracted to one another with a force inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
C. The law of gravitation ceases to exist outside the earth's atmosphere.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above

Answer: D

What is/are the direction(s) for vertical ground reaction force?

A. up
B. down
C. lateral
D. all of the above are possible directions

Answer: A

Which of the following would be typical for vertical ground reaction force (GRF) during running?

A. GRF = body weight
B. GRF = 2 × body weight
C. GRF = ½ body weight
D. None of the above

Answer: B

What type of energy is strain energy?

A. potential
B. kinetic
C. caloric
D. entropic

Answer: A

Which of the following factors does not affect the amount of friction generated between two dry surfaces?

A. the coefficient of friction between the two surfaces
B. the surface area in contact
C. the reaction force
D. the normal force

Answer: B

Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between impact and impulse?

A. impact is always greater than impulse
B. impulse is always greater than impact
C. impacts generate impulses
D. impulses generate impacts

Answer: C

Which of the following statements is true of the amount of horizontal force required to start an object sitting on a horizontal surface in motion?

A. it must be greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction
B. it must be greater than the coefficient of static friction
C. it must be greater than the maximum static friction force
D. it must be greater than the maximum kinetic friction force

Answer: C

When two bodies collide head-on and then continue to travel collectively in the original direction of motion of one of the bodies, what factor determines the direction of collective motion after the collision?

A. the relative momenta of the two bodies
B. the relative masses of the two bodies
C. the relative acceleration of the two bodies
D. the relative weights of the two bodies

Answer: A

Which of the following is a correct unit of mechanical energy?

A. Joules
B. Watts
C. kg-m
D. kg/m

Answer: A

Which of the following pairs of quantities are expressed in the same units of measure?

A. friction and weight
B. work and energy
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

Answer: C

Which of the following mechanical quantities is evident in explosive track and field events, such as the long jump and the shot put.

A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. mechanical work
D. mechanical power

Answer: D

Energy of motion is also called what?

A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. strain energy
D. elastic energy

Answer: B

The capacity for doing work that a body possesses because of its height or position is called what?

A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. moment of inertia
D. mechanical power

Answer: A

The product of a force and the time during which it acts defines what?

A. momentum
B. velocity
C. acceleration
D. impulse

Answer: D

Which of the following is true of the coefficient of restitution of a racquetball?

A. it depends solely on the type of material of which the ball is made
B. it depends on the size of the ball as well as the type of material
C. it depends solely on how hard the ball is hit
D. it is a number relating to the elasticity of a ball against a particular surface

Answer: D

Which of the following correctly describes impact?

A. large force applied over a long period of time
B. large force applied over a short period of time
C. small force applied over a long period of time
D. small force applied over a short period of time

Answer: B

Which of the following mechanical quantities is not dependent on time?

A. work
B. power
C. kinetic energy
D. velocity

Answer: A

The principle of conservation of momentum restates which of Newton's laws?

A. inertia
B. acceleration
C. action/reaction
D. gravitation

Answer: A

What variable may be described as "the quantity of motion" possessed by an object?

A. force
B. inertia
C. momentum
D. velocity

Answer: C

In sporting activities, what amount of friction is desired?

A. large
B. small
C. none
D. depends on the situation

Answer: D

The 2 variables that determine momentum are

A. velocity and time
B. velocity and mass
C. mass and acceleration
D. velocity and acceleration

Answer: B

Which quantity is not a force?

A. friction
B. mass
C. weight
D. gravity

Answer: B

The higher the jump, the "harder" the landing. This statement reflects which of the following laws?

A. the law of inertia
B. the law of momentum
C. the law of torque
D. the law of action-reaction

Answer: D

A 500N gymnast performing a giant swing with an angular velocity of 5 rad/sec, exerts 90 Nm of torque on the support bar. How much torque is exerted by the bar on the gymnast's hands?

A. 100 Nm
B. 2500 Nm
C. 590 Nm
D. 90 Nm

Answer: D

A skater gliding on ice will continue to move in the same direction and with the same speed (in the absence of the action of additional forces). This exemplifies which of the following laws?

A. Newton's first law of inertia
B. Newton's second law of acceleration
C. Newton's third law of action/reaction
D. Newton's law of gravitational force

Answer: A

An email contract is

Inferior performance is:

Big High Drug Store contracts to hire Anna Sue as a pharmacist upon graduation in May, but she must receive her Pharmacist's license by the next December. This contract contains a(n)

Squeegie, 17 years old, buys a car for $20,000.00 cash from Fast Eddie's Used Cars. A week later Squeegie is stopped at a red light when he is rear-ended by Wingnut. Squeegie has the wrecked car, now worth $200.00, towed back to Fast Eddie's. Squeegie will

Generally, Consideration must be:

Jenna saw a vase in a store. A tag on the vase said, "Genuine Crystal, $125." Jenna said to Owen, the owner of the store, "I'll buy this vase for $125." Owen refused to sell the vase top Jenna. In a lawsuit brought by Jenna against Owen,

Which of the following statements concerning the effectiveness of an offeree's rejections and an offeror's revocation of an offer are ordinarily true?

CitiBank makes a mistake at an auction which costs the CitiBank $350,000.00. After the final bid is accepted and the hammer has fallen, CitiBank realizes its mistake. CitiBank tries to overturn the final bid in a lawsuit.

Sara and Jesse are getting married. They discuss and orally agree on the disposition of all property in the event that the marriage is not successful. During divorce proceedings, Jesse states that the couple had an agreement as to the disposition of property. Is the agreement enforceable?

An award of __________ performance orders the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract.

According to Mr. Cochran, courts do not enforce "gift" contracts because

A __________ is a person who agrees to pay a debt if the primary debtor does not.

When a client accepts the services of an accountant without an agreement concerning payment, the result is

An oral contract for the sale of land is:

If a contract requires the occurrence of an event before a party is obligated to perform a contractual duty, this is a condition _________.

Consists of who (sender) communicates what (message) to whom (receiver, why (purpose) the communicator does it, where (setting), when (time, and how (way) it is done.

Occurs when there is positive verbal and negative nonverbal communication, or vice versa.

____ is sharing meaning with others without using words.

When you assume that everyone in your group has the same meaning for a word.

Words are ______, so meaning is not contained in words.

____ are representations of referents - whatever the _____ refers to.

____ is a structured system of symbols for sharing meaning.

______ is a process because changes in events and relationships are part of a continuous flow.

(Dimension) Refers to how messages define or redefine the relationship among group members.

(Dimension) Refers to the information transmitted.

__ as a transaction also means that all parties influence each other.

____ is a transaction. Each person is both a sender and receiver, not just one or the other, providing constant feedback.

This may influence us to view competent communication as mere common sense once we have received communication training.

The I-Knew-It-Already tendency.

Without understanding the complexities of the ______ process, no amount of skills training will be meaningful, and it may be harmful.

_____ is a tool that can be used to help solve most problems that arise in groups.

Groups whose members are connected by electronic technology.

What injury can occur when the neck undergoes sudden acceleration and deceleration (such as in a car accident)?

Sprains occur in what type of tissue?

What musculoskeletal problem causes the most absences from work?

Which of the following contributes to increased spinal loading?

Spinal relaxation phenomenon explains what?

What is the dominant force on the spine during activities requiring backward leaning of the trunk, such as rappelling?

What type of articulation occurs between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae?

Attachment to the ribs limits range of motion in which vertebrae?

In anatomical position, where is the center of gravity located relative to the spine?

What action(s) do posterior trunk muscles cause when they contract unilaterally?

Which abdominal muscles cause rotation to the left?

Anterior pelvic tilt facilitates what type of spinal motion?

Which type of exaggerated curve is often caused by osteoporosis?

Lateral deviations in spinal curvature are called what?

What is the enlarged cervical portion of the supraspinous ligament called?

What causes the pumping action (influx and outflux of water containing nutrients and waste) of the intervertebral discs in adults?

What is the most common type of spinal loading during daily activities?

The most superior cervical vertebrae is called what?

Unusually high incidences of pars interarticularis fractures have been documented in which of the following groups of athletes?

What is the most common type of vertebral fracture?

Which of the following are potential consequences of spinal fractures?

Transverse or spinous process fractures may result from which of the following?

A typical geriatric disc has a fluid content that is reduced by approximately how much?

What joint is usually the culprit in low back pain?

What is the result when part of the nucleus pulposus of the disc protrudes and presses on a nerve?

The rectus abdominis causes flexion when contracted ________.

Lack of flexibility in which of the following muscle groups can cause anterior pelvic tilt?

The sacral region of the spine is fused to which of the following bones?

What type of joint occurs between the superior and inferior articulating facets of adjacent vertebrae?

Which vertebrae are the largest?

The spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae inhibit movement in which plane?

The articulations between adjacent vertebral bodies are which of the following types of joints?

The condition of exaggerated thoracic curvature is known as which of the following?

Which of the following is not true about lordosis?

Which of the following spinal curves are referred to as primary curves?

Which of the following spinal curves are referred to as primary curves?

Which statement is not true about the intervertebral discs?

are representations of referents - whatever the _ refers to.