Archive for September 2018

What is the insertion of rhomboid major?

What is the insertion of rhomboid major?



Answer: medial border of the scapula between spine of scapula and inferior angle

What is the insertion of the levator scapula?

What is the insertion of the levator scapula?



Answer: medial border of the scapula, between superior angle and superior portion of the spine of scapula

What is the origin of the deltoid?

What is the origin of the deltoid?



Answer: lateral one third of clavicle, acromion and spine of scapula

What are true statements about the deltoid?

What are true statements about the deltoid?



Answer:

It's an antagonist to itself.
It's posterior fibers laterally rotate the shoulder.
It's posterior fibers extend the shoulder.

Renewing an FQ card (exposed firearm permit) requires proof of requalifying 4 times during the term or the expiring 2-year card. What are the rules about when the requalifications are to be done?

Renewing an FQ card (exposed firearm permit) requires proof of requalifying 4 times during the term or the expiring 2-year card. What are the rules about when the requalifications are to be done?



Answer: Must requalify four times during the life of the 2 year permit: twice during the first year after the date of issuance, and twice during the second year. Requalification must be at least four months apart

A large retail store uses its own employees as security officers. Those employees need to be registered with BSIS as 'Proprietary Private Security Officers' But even less know is that as of 1/1/2011, the employer needs registration from BSIS as a 'Proprietary Security Employer'. What is the cost to the employer to apply for this registration?

A large retail store uses its own employees as security officers. Those employees need to be registered with BSIS as 'Proprietary Private Security Officers' But even less know is that as of 1/1/2011, the employer needs registration from BSIS as a 'Proprietary Security Employer'. What is the cost to the employer to apply for this registration?



Answer: $75

Clients sometimes have 'personality differences' with the security officer a PPO sends to staff their needs. But if a client's asks you to replace a security officer because he/she is a member of a 'protected class' who might be liable for legal penalties?

Clients sometimes have 'personality differences' with the security officer a PPO sends to staff their needs. But if a client's asks you to replace a security officer because he/she is a member of a 'protected class' who might be liable for legal penalties?



Answer: PPO and the PPO's clients

What is a 'protected class'?

What is a 'protected class'?



Answer: Protected class is a term used in ant-discrimination law. The term describes characteristic's or factors which cannot be targeted for discriminations or harassment. The following characteristics are some of what are considered "protected class" and persons cannot be discriminated against based on these characteristics: race, color, religion, sex, national origin, sexual orientations, disability and more

Is this the true liability insurance limits of a business that allows at least one person to carry a firearm: five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) for any one loss due to bodily injury or death and five hundred thousand dollars ($500.000) for any one loss due to injury or destruction of property, totaling one million?

Is this the true liability insurance limits of a business that allows at least one person to carry a firearm: five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) for any one loss due to bodily injury or death and five hundred thousand dollars ($500.000) for any one loss due to injury or destruction of property, totaling one million?



Answer: YES

If a security officer quietly observes a shopper observes a shopper place $50 worth of merchandise not paid for into a bag the shopper brought into the store, and the security officer sees the shopper then walk past the point of payment area and going into the parking lot without paying for the merchandise that is still in the bag, and the shopper when stopped truthfully admits that he/she entered the store penniless with the intention to steal that exact merchandise, what might the shopper be arrested for?

If a security officer quietly observes a shopper observes a shopper place $50 worth of merchandise not paid for into a bag the shopper brought into the store, and the security officer sees the shopper then walk past the point of payment area and going into the parking lot without paying for the merchandise that is still in the bag, and the shopper when stopped truthfully admits that he/she entered the store penniless with the intention to steal that exact merchandise, what might the shopper be arrested for?



Answer: burglary.

If a security officer quietly observes a shopper place $50 worth of merchandise not paid for into a bag the shopper brought into the store, and the security officer sees the shopper then walks past the point of payment area and going into the parking lot without paying for the merchandise that is still in the bag, what might the security officer arrest the shopper for?

If a security officer quietly observes a shopper place $50 worth of merchandise not paid for into a bag the shopper brought into the store, and the security officer sees the shopper then walks past the point of payment area and going into the parking lot without paying for the merchandise that is still in the bag, what might the security officer arrest the shopper for?



Answer: Theft

Why is '1099ing' a source of fines and other problems for PPO's?

Why is '1099ing' a source of fines and other problems for PPO's?



Answer: Many PPO's used the IRS form 1099 form (meant for contractors) with their employees, in a fraudulent attempt to 'get around' laws involving payroll taxes and worker's compensations insurance. PPOs can on contract/1099 security work to other licensed PPOs; anyone else used must be a valid employee (with payroll taxes and workers compensation insurance)

What does 'false arrest' actually mean?

What does 'false arrest' actually mean?



Answer: Where a person was held in custody without probable cause, or without an order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction. Although it is possible to sue law enforcement officials for false arrest, the usual defendants in such cases are private security firms

What is OSHA and what is OSHA's goal?

What is OSHA and what is OSHA's goal?



Answer: Occupational safety and health administration to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training outreach education and assistance

When can a guard use deadly force?

When can a guard use deadly force?



Answer: Only against an immediate life threatening attack

How long should a PPO store past pages of the daily activity record log?

How long should a PPO store past pages of the daily activity record log?



Answer: BSIS does not have authority specifically about DAR's but they do instruct to keep all employee records at least 2 years also remember that ex-employees can file lawsuits for up to 3 years

When would BSIS consider your application for a PPO license to be abandoned?

When would BSIS consider your application for a PPO license to be abandoned?



Answer: If you do not complete the license application process within one year after your application is filed or you do not pass the examination within a one year period after your application is filed or you do not pass the examination within a one year period after becoming eligible the application is abandoned

If an investigation is needed by the client of a PPO, how should this handled?

If an investigation is needed by the client of a PPO, how should this handled?



Answer: PPO are allowed to do an investigation in connection to something they were hire to protect however most PPO are not proficient investigators usually best to involve a licensed private investigator

For new security guards initial 40 hours of training what information will be found on the completion certificate?

For new security guards initial 40 hours of training what information will be found on the completion certificate?



Answer: Per BSIS the certificate shall identify the 1) course(s) taken 2) the number of hours of training provided 3) identification of the issuing entity 4) name of the individual and 5) instructor and 6)a date and 7)state that the course comply with the department of consumer affairs skills training course for security guards and the certificate shall be 8)serially numbered for tracking

What insurance is required by law of an armed PPO's employee?

What insurance is required by law of an armed PPO's employee?



Answer: Workers compensation insurance and $1million in liability insurance - $500,000 one loss due to bodily injury or death and $500,000 for one loss due to injury or destruction of property

Applying for a branch office license on the application for a PPO's branch office location should the PPO list the person who is to be 'in charge' of that new branch office location the same qualified manager licensed by BSIS who is in charge of the primary business location?

Applying for a branch office license on the application for a PPO's branch office location should the PPO list the person who is to be 'in charge' of that new branch office location the same qualified manager licensed by BSIS who is in charge of the primary business location?



Answer: NO

What information is found on FQ card?

What information is found on FQ card?



Answer: Permit's name and address calibers permit number expiration date

How long should a daily activity log be kept?

How long should a daily activity log be kept?



Answer: BSIS does not have authority over DAR's but they do instruct that all employees records are to be kept at least 2 years also remember that ex-employees can file lawsuits for up to 3 years

Security officers and having cars towed away guidelines?

Security officers and having cars towed away guidelines?



Answer: BSIS rules do not cover this most towing by private security involves parking on private property in violation of posted rules and per client instructions to the PPO company often written client authorization in required by tow companies of the property owner or manager

What is the difference between the duties of a security officer and those of a police?

What is the difference between the duties of a security officer and those of a police?



Answer: Some of the many difference include security officer works for a business police officer works for a government entity a police officer is sworn to protect all people and property and is authorized to be enforce the laws of his city county state or jurisdiction the duty of a security guard is to protect the property and of the business that employs him/her

If an applicant for a PPO license was convicted in the past of the misdemeanor crime but later he/she got that conviction expunged from his/her criminal record and the guilty verdict was set aside must that conviction be reported to BSIS on his/her PPO application?

If an applicant for a PPO license was convicted in the past of the misdemeanor crime but later he/she got that conviction expunged from his/her criminal record and the guilty verdict was set aside must that conviction be reported to BSIS on his/her PPO application?



Answer: YES

What is an example of a proprietary security officer?

What is an example of a proprietary security officer?



Answer: Is an unarmed guard, not working for a guard company but instead working as an employee of a private company such as target Walmart apple or IBM the states exact definition of proprietary private security officer ("PSO") is an unarmed individual (1) who is employed exclusively by a single employer (2) whose primary duty is to provide security services for that employer (3) whose services are not contracted of any other entity or person, (4) who is not exempt pursuant to section 7582.2 of the business and professions code and (5) who meets both of the following criteria A) is required to wear a distinctive uniform clearly identifying the individual as a security officer and B) is likely to interact with the public while performing his or her duties

Is there any wording difference on the registration pocket cards of a regular security officer/guard and that of a proprietary security officer?

Is there any wording difference on the registration pocket cards of a regular security officer/guard and that of a proprietary security officer?



Answer: Yes, a regular guard has a registration card that says security guard the registration card of a proprietary security officer instead says proprietary private security officer

What is the possible fine for failing to properly maintain an I-9 or for not providing inspection of an I-9 to proper authorities?

What is the possible fine for failing to properly maintain an I-9 or for not providing inspection of an I-9 to proper authorities?



Answer: Penalties from homeland security for failing to produce a form I-9 range from $1,100 per violation in determining penalty amounts CE considers five factors: the size of the business, good faith effort to comply, seriousness of violation, whether the violation involved unauthorized workers and history of previous violation

Who is allowed for inspection your employees I-9?

Who is allowed for inspection your employees I-9?



Answer: Must be available for inspection by authorized officials of the department of homeland security department of labor and office of special counsel for immigration related unfair employment practices

When can a guard be asked to take a drug test?

When can a guard be asked to take a drug test?



Answer: Per company policy often 4 types of drug testing in these policies: pre-employment screening, random testing, testing based on "reasonable suspicion" and post-accident testing Must be equal & non discriminatory

Should an employee's I-9 form be stored in the employees personnel file?

Should an employee's I-9 form be stored in the employees personnel file?



Answer: No. the I-9 should be stored separately from employees personnel file as to keep I-9 details private from persons who have other business needs to see the employees' personnel file

If an out of state guard company needs to finish a job that travels through California or ends in California, can they get permission to perform their service in California on a temporary or short term basis?

If an out of state guard company needs to finish a job that travels through California or ends in California, can they get permission to perform their service in California on a temporary or short term basis?



Answer: No. No permission is granted for out of staters. No reprocity

For how long must form I-9 be retained by the employer?

For how long must form I-9 be retained by the employer?



Answer: Employers must retain an I-9 for all current employees. Employers must also retain I-9 for all former employees until the latter of 3 years after the employee is hired or 1 year after the employment ended

What is a form I-9?

What is a form I-9?



Answer: I-9 is U.S Citizenship and Immigration Service form. It is used by employer to verify an employee's identity and to establish that the worker is eligible to accept employment in the United States

What is a form W-9?

What is a form W-9?



Answer: W-9 request for taxpayers identification number and certification this IRS for is used for employers to collect the most important information from affiliates, subcontractors, or feelance workers. These non-employees get paid by the employer, but the worker is responsible for all his taxes that these independent contractors by employer by January 31 for the prior year

What is form 'form W-4'?

What is form 'form W-4'?



Answer: W-4 employees withholding allowance certificate an IRS withholding form. Is for the employees to report the desired number of withholding exemptions. The amount to withhold from each employee is determined by the number of withholding exemptions claimed on the employees W-4 filled out by the employee at time hiring

What is the difference between robbery and burglary?

What is the difference between robbery and burglary?



Answer: Robbery is taking something from someone, using force or fear; burglary is the entering of a structure with intent to steal or commit a crime

What is the 'merchant's privilege rule'?

What is the 'merchant's privilege rule'?



Answer: (Penal Code 490.5) gives legal authority for a merchant or his/her employee or agent, including a guard, to detain persons suspected of shoplifting in a retail store. This is not an arrest, but is merely a detention to investigate further the reasonable non deadly force can be used. If theft did occur or was attempted and criminal charges are to be pursued suspect must be given over to law enforcement authorities in reasonable time

Can a private person make an arrest for a felony crime if that felony crime did not occur in the private person's presence?

Can a private person make an arrest for a felony crime if that felony crime did not occur in the private person's presence?



Answer: YES, penal code 837 tells that 'a person may arrest another when the person arrested has committed a felony, although not in his presence' and that 'private person may arrest another when felony has been in fact committed, and he has reasonable cause for believing the person arrested to have committed it'

When is a PPO 'branch officer' required?

When is a PPO 'branch officer' required?




Answer: When advertising for another location or conducting business from, other than the PPO's primary business location

A currently registered guard would like to apply for an FQ card so he/she can carry a firearm on duty per the PPO's need. However, he/she was he was convicted 10 years ago of a misdemeanor. Will the FQ card be issued?

A currently registered guard would like to apply for an FQ card so he/she can carry a firearm on duty per the PPO's need. However, he/she was he was convicted 10 years ago of a misdemeanor. Will the FQ card be issued?



Answer: May be approved, but if denied it may be successfully appealed

When must a guard be paid 'time and a half?

When must a guard be paid 'time and a half?



Answer: One and one-halftime the employees regular rate of pay for all hours worked in excess of eight hours up and including 12 hours in any work day, and for the first eight hours worked on the seventh consecutive day of work in a workweek

While pressing overhead during a Multiplanar Step-Up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press exercise for body stabilization, it is important to make sure that the low back does not arch as it may indicate weakness of the intrinsic core stabilizers and tightness of the _____ muscle.

While pressing overhead during a Multiplanar Step-Up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press exercise for body stabilization, it is important to make sure that the low back does not arch as it may indicate weakness of the intrinsic core stabilizers and tightness of the _____ muscle.



Answer: latissimus dorsi

John is performing static stretching on his calf muscles. During the stretching, however, John feels tension in his calf muscles. Identify the action during the procedure that is most likely to have caused the muscle tension in his calf muscles.

John is performing static stretching on his calf muscles. During the stretching, however, John feels tension in his calf muscles. Identify the action during the procedure that is most likely to have caused the muscle tension in his calf muscles.



Answer: He let his heel hang off a step.

Mark performs a whole body vibration exercise that focuses on the gluteus maximus, quadriceps, and erector spinae. He has no previous history of back or shoulder problems. However, with time, Mark begins to complain of pain in the neck and middle back regions. Which of the following is most likely to have led to his discomfort?

Mark performs a whole body vibration exercise that focuses on the gluteus maximus, quadriceps, and erector spinae. He has no previous history of back or shoulder problems. However, with time, Mark begins to complain of pain in the neck and middle back regions. Which of the following is most likely to have led to his discomfort?



Answer: Looking up during the exercise

A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This an example of which section of the Stages of Change model?

A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This an example of which section of the Stages of Change model?



Answer: Preparation

A certified personal trainer is working for two weeks on a cruise ship as a guest instructor. According to the Code of Professional Conduct, which of the following clients is the personal trainer allowed to train?

A certified personal trainer is working for two weeks on a cruise ship as a guest instructor. According to the Code of Professional Conduct, which of the following clients is the personal trainer allowed to train?



Answer: A 60-year-old man who has cardiac arrhythmia, a written medical clearance to exercise, and prescribed restrictions on which exercises to avoid.

Jenna is an active member of a fitness club who regularly attends her fitness program. However, she has to go on a three-week long trip to another city, which will disrupt her exercise schedule. In order to maintain her progress at the fitness club, she decides to stay at a hotel that has a gym. Which of the following strategies has Jenna utilized?

Jenna is an active member of a fitness club who regularly attends her fitness program. However, she has to go on a three-week long trip to another city, which will disrupt her exercise schedule. In order to maintain her progress at the fitness club, she decides to stay at a hotel that has a gym. Which of the following strategies has Jenna utilized?



Answer: Problem-focused coping

Identify the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles.

Identify the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles.



Answer: : To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently

What is blood pressure (BP)?

What is blood pressure (BP)?



Answer: It is the pressure of the circulating blood against the walls of the blood vessels.

Identify a characteristic of muscle spindles.

Identify a characteristic of muscle spindles.



Answer: They are sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change.

Outline the five steps involved in general wound healing

Outline the five steps involved in general wound healing



Answer:

A. removal of central core
B. formation of granulation tissue
C. extracellular matrix deposition
D. scar formation
E. wound contraction

What is healing of a long bone fracture?

What is healing of a long bone fracture?



Answer:

1. removeal of necrotic bone and debris by macrophages and osteoclasts
2. angiogenesis and fibroblast proliferation
3. callus formation: pluripotential mesenchymal cells from the soft tissue, periosteium and bone marrow proliferate and differentiate, composed of fibrous tissue, cartilage and bone, fusion of osteogenic layers on either side of the callus
4. remodeling phase: newly formed woven bone is gradually converted to lamellar bone, at about 8 weeks the callus is called a secondary or hard callus and it consists mainly of bone
5. stage of consolidation: endocondrial ossification of the cartilage continues, trabecular bone replaces cartilage, the new bone is continuously remodelled and eventually replaced by compact bone, dead bone removed before healing can be completed, eventually the oritinal line of the bone is restored (takes years)

What is the repair of peripheral nerves?

What is the repair of peripheral nerves?



Answer:

1. schwann cells phagocytose degenerative myelin
2. proximal and distal axons degenerate
3. debris is cleared by macrophages
4. schwnn cells proliferate along the former course of the axon along endoneurium
5. proximal axon generates varies sprouts advancing between schwann cells
6. once regenerated axons meet end organ schwnn cells start myelin production

What is repair of skeletal muscle?

What is repair of skeletal muscle?



Answer:

skeletal muscle cells ar long multinucleated, permanent cells
myonuclei ar unable to divide
1. macrophages clean up intracelular debris
2. satellite cells, mitosis --> myoblasts --> migrate from marginal site to centre of myobibrils, new myofiber nuclei
3. intact basal lamina: keeps both satellite cells and their myoblast progeny within damaged segment, keeps fibroblasts out, allows entry and exit of macorphages
4. after critical mass of myoblasts have formed they begin to fuse to form myotubular giant cells
5. myotubes sent out numerous cytoplasmic processes of which re-establish contact with the original muscle cell
6. cell membranes fuse to facilitat union of regenerated segment with vable myofibre

What is repair of articular cartilage with injuries that involve subchondral bone?

What is repair of articular cartilage with injuries that involve subchondral bone?



Answer:

haemorrhage, inflammatory response
defects is filled with fibrovascular tissue
differentiation into chondrocytes starts after about two weeks, production of proteoglycans
fibrocartilage formed after 6-8 weeks

What is repair of articular cartilage?

What is repair of articular cartilage?



Answer:

specific anatomy: no nerves, blood or lymph
chondrocytes responsible for production, maintenance and turnover of matrix
minimal mitotic activty
chondrocytes unable to migrate

What is second intention healing of cutaneous wound healing?

What is second intention healing of cutaneous wound healing?



Answer:

occurs When wound edges are far apart with more extensive loss of cells and tissue
occurs in septic wounds of if FB present
takes longer to heal
epithelializaiton may be delayed
more extensive scar formation

What is the process of epithelialization?

What is the process of epithelialization?



Answer:

process of replacement of superficial epithelial cells of skin and mucous membranes: epithelial cells at the wound edge dissasemble connection with basement membrane and adjacent cells, cells express as new surface receptors, movement of cells over the ECM of wound surface, epithelial cells at edge of the wound proliferate
once cells have filled defect they differentitate
inact basement membranes enhance reepithelialization
concurrent inflammation can impair differentiation
concurrent inflammation can impair differentiation: impairs/delays epithelializaiton, ulceration, continuous attempts to cover wound, metaplasia

What are the processes of cutaneous wound first intention healing?

What are the processes of cutaneous wound first intention healing?



Answer:

occurs if edges are in close proximity
wound needs to be clean and non-septic
initial healing occurs rapidly
epithelialization occurs within days
maturation occurs over longer period
minimal scar tissue formation
tensile strength similar to adjacent tissue

Briefly describe the pathogenesis of granulation tissue formation in a wound, highlighting the important gross and microscopic features.

Briefly describe the pathogenesis of granulation tissue formation in a wound, highlighting the important gross and microscopic features.



Answer: Granulation tissue formation is two major processes: fibroblast migration and proliferation and angiogenesis. Migration of the cells begins along the framework formed by plasma proteins and fibrin. This migration is triggered by growth factors. Angiogenesis begins with proteolysis of the basement membrane and ECM of parental vessel. This is followed by migration of immature endothelial cells into the wound. This proliferation of endothelial cells forms solid endothelial tubes. The lumen of the tubes mature into new capillaries. Then there is the formation of gap junctions and recruitment of pericytes and smooth muscle cells to support the new capillary. Grossly, granulation tissue appears as small nodules on the surface of the wound. They are red, hemorrhagic and bleeds easily. Microscopically, fibroblasts and connective tissue fibres grow parallel to wound surface. The proliferating capillaries are arranged perpendicularly to the fibroblasts and are often evenly spaced

What are the types of edema?

What are the types of edema?



Answer: localized: increased pressure ithin veins or lymphatic obstruction
generalized: generallized congestion, hypoproteinamia or increased Na/water retention

What are the three mechanisms to edema formation?

What are the three mechanisms to edema formation?



Answer: Alterations to starling forces
1. increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure (factors increase venous pressure more important more important than those increased arterial pressure)
2. decreased palms oncotic/osmotic pressure (hypoproteinemia)
3. increased capillary permeability (inflammatory, allergic rxns)

What are consequences of hemorrhage?

What are consequences of hemorrhage?



Answer:

amount of loss and rate of loss: closely linked (25% -> hemorrhagic shock, 25% slowly -> anaemia)
site of loss (small amts at critical sites may be fatal--CNS, pericardial sac)

What is aetiology of haemorrhage?

What is aetiology of haemorrhage?



Answer:

trauma: most common
vascular disease: inflammation, neoplasia, degeneration
disorders of clotting: increased tendency to bleed spontaneously or following minimal trauma (coumarin or bracken poisoning)

Subscribe to: Posts (Atom)