Archive for August 2018

"The ability to live in terrestrial environments evolved independently in arthropods (at least twice), mollusks, roundworms, & annelids." What logical conclusion would you make from this statement?

"The ability to live in terrestrial environments evolved independently in arthropods (at least twice), mollusks, roundworms, & annelids." What logical conclusion would you make from this statement?



Answer: the common ancestor of all these groups was probably aquatic.

Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins. In fact, it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet. What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the development of these toxins?

Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins. In fact, it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet. What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the development of these toxins?



Answer: a slow-moving or sessile lifestyle in the adult.

An elephant & a mouse are running in full sunlight, & both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade & rest, which animal will cool down faster?

An elephant & a mouse are running in full sunlight, & both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade & rest, which animal will cool down faster?



Answer: the mouse will because he has a higher surface are/volume ratio.

Your professor announces he has discovered a new species of bird that feeds mostly on worms & soft-bodied insects picked up from the ground & off leaves. Based on this information, what shape of beak would predict for this bird?

Your professor announces he has discovered a new species of bird that feeds mostly on worms & soft-bodied insects picked up from the ground & off leaves. Based on this information, what shape of beak would predict for this bird?



Answer: long & narrow like tweezers.

Upon close inspection of movement in annelids & nematodes, you would notice an obvious difference. Nematodes tend to wriggle back & forth, while annelids tend to contract along their length as their girth swells & then thin out as they stretch. What anatomical feature explains this type of movement?

Upon close inspection of movement in annelids & nematodes, you would notice an obvious difference. Nematodes tend to wriggle back & forth, while annelids tend to contract along their length as their girth swells & then thin out as they stretch. What anatomical feature explains this type of movement?



Answer: the nematodes lack circular muscle fibers.

"The great thing about digital cameras is that they are the ideal testing bed for learning about exposure. You can take as many shots as you like at no cost and they not only allow you to shoot in Auto mode and Manual mode - but also generally have _________ modes like aperture priority (Av) and shutter priority (Tv) modes which allow you to make decisions about one or two elements of the triangle and let the camera handle the other elements.

"The great thing about digital cameras is that they are the ideal testing bed for learning about exposure. You can take as many shots as you like at no cost and they not only allow you to shoot in Auto mode and Manual mode - but also generally have _________ modes like aperture priority (Av) and shutter priority (Tv) modes which allow you to make decisions about one or two elements of the triangle and let the camera handle the other elements.




Answer: Semi-automatic

What are the steps to get a crisp focus in manual focus?

What are the steps to get a crisp focus in manual focus?



1.Set the lens focus mode switch to
2.Display (and move) the magnifying frame to the position where you want to focus
3.Magnify the image
4.Focus Manually by turning the focus ring on the lens

Because the process of clarification, intensification, and interpretation of events is based on the selection and the specific use of aesthetic elements, the recipient's perceptions are indirectly and, more often, directly _______.

Because the process of clarification, intensification, and interpretation of events is based on the selection and the specific use of aesthetic elements, the recipient's perceptions are indirectly and, more often, directly _______.



Answer: Manipulated

You must learn how to develop and mold an idea so that it fits the medium's technical as well as aesthetic production and reception requirements. This molding process, called _______, presupposes a thorough knowledge of such production tools as cameras, lenses, lighting, audio, and so forth as well as applied aesthetics, such as selective focus, the proper framing of a shot, the use of color, the selection of music, and the sequencing of various parts of a scene.

You must learn how to develop and mold an idea so that it fits the medium's technical as well as aesthetic production and reception requirements. This molding process, called _______, presupposes a thorough knowledge of such production tools as cameras, lenses, lighting, audio, and so forth as well as applied aesthetics, such as selective focus, the proper framing of a shot, the use of color, the selection of music, and the sequencing of various parts of a scene.



Answer: encoding

"Well-known communication scholar Marshall McLuhan proclaimed a half century ago that 'the _______ is the message.' With this insightful overstatement, he meant that the medium, such as television or film, occupies an important position not only in distributing the message, but also in shaping it."

"Well-known communication scholar Marshall McLuhan proclaimed a half century ago that 'the _______ is the message.' With this insightful overstatement, he meant that the medium, such as television or film, occupies an important position not only in distributing the message, but also in shaping it."




Answer: medium

When confronted with an aesthetic context, our perceptual processes are so immediate and forceful that we respond to certain stimuli in predictable ways even when we know that we are being perceptually manipulated. T or F

When confronted with an aesthetic context, our perceptual processes are so immediate and forceful that we respond to certain stimuli in predictable ways even when we know that we are being perceptually manipulated. T or F



Answer: True

When we interpret an event by a virtual context that we form through our experience and knowledge of how the world works or ought to work, and even through our prejudices. We must engage our cognitive facilities in these situations.

When we interpret an event by a virtual context that we form through our experience and knowledge of how the world works or ought to work, and even through our prejudices. We must engage our cognitive facilities in these situations.



Answer: associative context

Which of the following items are indications of osteoarthritis?

Which of the following items are indications of osteoarthritis?

A. A thickening of the articular cartilage

B. A thinning of the compact bone under the articular cartilage

C. Both A and B


D. Neither A nor B


Answer: D

What is endochondral ossification?

What is endochondral ossification?



A. It is a developmental process during the early fetal growth period in which there is a rapid multiplication of cells
B. It is a developmental process during the pubertal period in which growth occurs mainly by the enlargement of existing cells
C. It is a developmental process in which one type of tissue (a cartilaginous model) is replaced by another (bone tissue)
D. None of the above


Answer: C

The rectus femoris muscle originates on the anterior aspect of iliac spine and inserts onto the tibial tuberosity. What joint action(s) does it produce when it contracts concentrically?

The rectus femoris muscle originates on the anterior aspect of iliac spine and inserts onto the tibial tuberosity. What joint action(s) does it produce when it contracts concentrically?

A. Flexion at the knee and flexion at the hip

B. Extension at the knee and extension at the hip

C. Flexion at the knee and extension at the hip

D. Extension at the knee and flexion at the hip


Answer: D

What is the first step in excitation-contraction coupling?

What is the first step in excitation-contraction coupling? 


A. Each myosin filament pulls the actin filament it overlaps with towards its centre

B. An electrical signal travels over the surface of, and along, the muscle

C. Calcium ions expose active sites on the actin filaments, to which the myosin filaments immediately attach

D. In the neuromuscular junction, a chemical is released from the end of the nerve fibre, which causes a rapid change in the voltage of the muscle


Answer: D

Why is muscle considered an active tissue?

Why is muscle considered an active tissue? 


A. Because it produces movement

B. Because it responds to neural activation

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B


Answer: B

What is a motor unit?

What is a motor unit?

A. It is a single motor nerve and all the muscle fibres that it controls

B. It is the segment of a myofibril between two Z-lines

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B


Answer: A

What is a complex joint?

What is a complex joint?

A. A joint that contains an intra-articular structure such as cartilaginous discs or menisci

B. A joint that consists of two bones and one articulating surface

C. A joint composed of more than one pair of articulating surfaces

D. None of the above


Answer: A

Which of the following statements about ligaments is/are true?

Which of the following statements about ligaments is/are true?

A. They cross joints to attach muscles to bones

B. They are passive structures that resist tensile forces

C. They have a low proportion of collagen fibres

D. All of the above


Answer: B

Which of the following statements describes a mechanical function of the axial skeleton?

Which of the following statements describes a mechanical function of the axial skeleton?

A. It creates a framework that supports and protects the brain, the spinal cord and the organs

B. It provides an extensive surface area for the attachment of muscles that adjust the positions of the head, neck and trunk
C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B


Answer: C

Which of the following statements describes a mechanical function of the human skeletal system?

Which of the following statements describes a mechanical function of the human skeletal system? 


A. It provides support for weight bearing

B. It is involved in the storage of essential minerals such as calcium and phosphorous

C. It produces blood cells in the bone marrow that are part of the body's immune system

D. All of the above


Answer: A

Which of the following statements about the sagittal plane is/are true?

Which of the following statements about the sagittal plane is/are true?

A. It runs along the long axis of the body, extending anteriorly and posteriorly

B. It divides the body into left and right portions

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B


Answer: C

What is functional anatomy?

What is functional anatomy?

A. The study of the structure of the human body at a number of levels of organisation

B. The study of movement and the effects of physical activity on the organs and tissues of the musculoskeletal system
C. The study of the structure of major organ systems, which are groups of organs that function together in a coordinated manner
D. The study of all the superficial and internal features in a specific region of the body, such as the head, neck, or trunk


Answer: B

The equal sign (=) is known as the __________.

The equal sign (=) is known as the __________.



a. equality symbol
b. assignment operator
c. equality operator
d. property position


Answer: B

Which of the following affects the energy costs of exercise?

Which of the following affects the energy costs of exercise?




1. The intensity of the exercise
2. The mechanical efficiency of the person exercising
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B


Answer: Both A and B

Which of the energy systems makes the predominant contribution to adenosine triphosphate resynthesis during oxygen deficit?

Which of the energy systems makes the predominant contribution to adenosine triphosphate resynthesis during oxygen deficit?




A. The oxidative and anaerobic glycolytic energy systems
B. The phosphagen and oxidative energy systems
C. The phosphagen and anaerobic glycolytic energy systems
D. Each energy system would make an equal contribution


Answer: The phosphagen and anaerobic glycolytic energy systems

Which of the following factors determines exercise capacity?

Which of the following factors determines exercise capacity?




A. How much energy a skeletal muscle cell can produce
B. How quickly energy can be made available to the contracting elements in skeletal muscle
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B


Answer: Both A and B

To improve muscular strength, training programs must include which of the following?

To improve muscular strength, training programs must include which of the following?




A. High-intensity lifts that induce adaptations in Type IIb fibres
B. Low-intensity lifts that induce adaptations in Type I fibres
C. High-intensity lifts that induce adaptations in Type I fibres
D. Low intensity lifts that induce adaptations in Type IIa fibres


Answer: High-intensity lifts that induce adaptations in Type IIb fibres

Which of the following are cardiorespiratory responses to endurance training?

Which of the following are cardiorespiratory responses to endurance training?




A. Increased resting and submaximal heart rate
B. Increased blood volume, red blood cell number, and haemoglobin content
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B


Answer: Increased blood volume, red blood cell number and haemoglobin content

Which of the following best describes the VO2 steady state reached during submaximal exercise of constant intensity?

Which of the following best describes the VO2 steady state reached during submaximal exercise of constant intensity?



A. The point at which oxygen uptake is sufficient to provide the adenosine triphosphate needed
B. The highest rate at which a person can consume oxygen during exercise
C. The initial period of exercise when oxygen uptake cannot meet the energy demands of exercise
D. None of the above


Answer: The point at which oxygen uptake is sufficient to provide the adenosine triphosphate needed

What is muscular strength?

What is muscular strength?





A. The maximum force that can be produced by a muscle or muscle group in a single movement
B. The ability to generate a large amount of force rapidly
C. The ability of muscle to generate force repeatedly or continuously over time
D. None of the above


Answer: The maximum force that can be produced by a muscle or muscle group in a single movement

What is muscular power?

What is muscular power?




A. The maximum force that can be produced by a muscle or muscle group in a single movement
B. The ability to generate a large amount of force rapidly
C. The ability of muscle to generate force repeatedly or continuously over time
D. None of the above

Answer: The ability to generate a large amount of force rapidly

What is 'proprietary' private security officer?

What is 'proprietary' private security officer?



Answer: A 'proprietary' private officer is an unarmed individual who is employed exclusively by any one employer whose primary duty is to provide security services for his/her employer, whose service are not contracted to any other entity or person, and who is not exempt pursuant to 7582.2 and is both A) required to wear distinctive uniform clearly identifying the individual as a security officer and B) is likely to interact with the public while performing his/her duties

When is a guard paid 'double-time'?

When is a guard paid 'double-time'?



Answer: Double the employee's regular rate of pay for all hours worked in excess of 12 hours in any workday and for all hours worked in excess of eight on the seventh consecutive day of work in a work week

When can a PPO use a PO Box for an address?

When can a PPO use a PO Box for an address?



Answer: If the PPO's principal place of business is located at the licensee's residence

What are the rules about choosing a business name for a PPO license?

What are the rules about choosing a business name for a PPO license?



Answer: Business name choices will not be approved if: 1. If the choice could be confused with, or is similar to, a federal, state, county or municipal agency function or to any law enforcement agency and 2. If the confusingly similar to an existing licensee

If a guard who either quit or was fired is not given his final pay in the legally allowed time, what is the penalty against the PPO?

If a guard who either quit or was fired is not given his final pay in the legally allowed time, what is the penalty against the PPO?




Answer: The penalty is measured at the employee's daily rate of the pay and is calculated by multiplying the daily wage by the number of days that the employee was not paid, up to a maximum of 30 days. This does not mean that the wages continue for 30 day period, but that the employee may be entitled to up to 30 actual days' worth of wages. The 30-day period calendar days, and includes weekends and holidays and any other days that the employee would not normally work. Payment of the wages or the commencement of an action stops the penalty from accruing. Filing a complaint in court commences an action, an employee filing a claim with the Division of Labor Standards Enforcement (DLSE) is not considered the filing of an action, and does not stop the penalty from accruing

If a PPO wants to carry a firearm, what insurance coverage is required?

If a PPO wants to carry a firearm, what insurance coverage is required?



Answer: Liability Insurance of $500,000 for any one loss due to bodily injury or death, and $500,000 for any one loss due to injury or destruction of property, totaling $1million

What is the PPO applicant experience requirement?

What is the PPO applicant experience requirement?



Answer: At least one year of experience as a patrol person, guard, or watchman, or the equivalent

When may a PPO or PPO's employees use a badge?

When may a PPO or PPO's employees use a badge?



Answer: Only while engaged in guard or patrol work, and while wearing a distinctive uniform

Where must the PPO license be posted?

Where must the PPO license be posted?



Answer: Posted in a conspicuous place in the principal place of business

What is an 'FQ Card'?

What is an 'FQ Card'?



Answer: Firearms qualification card; exposed weapon carry

Subscribe to: Posts (Atom)