"The ability to live in terrestrial environments evolved independently in arthropods (at least twice), mollusks, roundworms, & annelids." What logical...
What would you expect to happen if researchers supplied an enzyme that blocked the expression of the DII gene?
What would you expect to happen if researchers supplied an enzyme that blocked the expression of the DII gene?
Answer: the developing embryo...
Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins. In fact, it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet. What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the development of these toxins?
Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins. In fact, it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the...
If you wanted to identify an unfamiliar protostome with a limbless, wormlike body, which characteristic would NOT be helpful in differentiating once species from another?
If you wanted to identify an unfamiliar protostome with a limbless, wormlike body, which characteristic would NOT be helpful in differentiating once...
The protostome developmental sequence arose just once in evolutionary history, resulting in two main subgroups-Lophotrochozoa & Ecdysozoa. What does this finding suggest?
The protostome developmental sequence arose just once in evolutionary history, resulting in two main subgroups-Lophotrochozoa & Ecdysozoa. What...
Which mollusk's eye is most similar to the vertebrate eye?
Which mollusk's eye is most similar to the vertebrate eye?
Answer: squids...
Which term best describes an animal that, although generating a significant amount of heat through metabolism, nonetheless does not maintain a constant body temperature?
Which term best describes an animal that, although generating a significant amount of heat through metabolism, nonetheless does not maintain a constant...
A woman standing & watching the stars on a cool, calm night will lose most of her body heat by which mechanism?
A woman standing & watching the stars on a cool, calm night will lose most of her body heat by which mechanism?
Answer: radiation...
Among protostomes, which morphological trait has shown the most variation?
Among protostomes, which morphological trait has shown the most variation?
Answer: type of body cavity (coelom vs. pseudocoelom vs. acoelom...
What is the main reason that a person sitting on the beach with an air temperature of 15C loses heat less rapidly than when immersed in lake water at 15C?
What is the main reason that a person sitting on the beach with an air temperature of 15C loses heat less rapidly than when immersed in lake water at...
Which of the following adult animals might you find floating in the open ocean, suspension feeding using its pharyngeal gill splits?
Which of the following adult animals might you find floating in the open ocean, suspension feeding using its pharyngeal gill splits?
Answer: a...
What would be the best anatomical feature to look for to distinguish a gastropod from a chiton?
What would be the best anatomical feature to look for to distinguish a gastropod from a chiton?
Answer: number of shell plates...
The presence of vestigial hip & leg bones in boas & pythons is considered evidence for what evolutionary link?
The presence of vestigial hip & leg bones in boas & pythons is considered evidence for what evolutionary link?
Answer: snakes have limbed...
Why do skates & rays have flattened bodies, while sharks are torpedo shaped?
Why do skates & rays have flattened bodies, while sharks are torpedo shaped?
Answer: sharks are streamlined for active hunting, while skates...
What is not a good strategy for increasing the surface area of an object relative to the volume?
What is not a good strategy for increasing the surface area of an object relative to the volume?
Answer: enlarge & make more spherical...
Some animals have no gills when young, but then develop gills that grow larger as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this increase in gill size?
Some animals have no gills when young, but then develop gills that grow larger as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this increase in gill...
Which is most likely to be aquatic?
Which is most likely to be aquatic?
Answer: suspension feeder...
Which of the following would most strongly support your hypothesis that an animal you are observing is an ectoparasite?
Which of the following would most strongly support your hypothesis that an animal you are observing is an ectoparasite?
Answer: limbs with c...
When considering the wormlike phyla within the protostomes, which feature is most useful in distinguishing groups?
When considering the wormlike phyla within the protostomes, which feature is most useful in distinguishing groups?
Answer: feeding structures...
Blood is a type of connective tissue because
Blood is a type of connective tissue because
Answer: blood has a liquid extracellular matrix...
How did the development of the jaw contribute to evolutionary diversification of early vertebrate lineages?
How did the development of the jaw contribute to evolutionary diversification of early vertebrate lineages?
Answer: it made additional food sources...
In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development, how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome & not a deuterostome?
In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development, how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome & not a deuterostome?
Answer: you...
What group of mammals have a.] embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples, b.] young that feed on milk, & c.] a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta?
What group of mammals have a.] embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples, b.] young that feed on milk, &...
Mammals & birds eat more often than reptiles. Which of the following traits shared by mammals & birds best explains this habit?
Mammals & birds eat more often than reptiles. Which of the following traits shared by mammals & birds best explains this habit?
Answer:&n...
Which of the following attributes is true for both arthropod exoskeletons & mollusk shells?
Which of the following attributes is true for both arthropod exoskeletons & mollusk shells?
Answer: they help retain moisture in terrestrial...
Which of the following statements comparing endotherms & ectotherms is false.
Which of the following statements comparing endotherms & ectotherms is false.
Answer: endotherms & ectotherms have about the same mass-specific...
Which adaptation is unique to insects among all protostomes?
Which adaptation is unique to insects among all protostomes?
Answer: the ability to fly by moving...
What do Nematoda & Arthropoda have in common?
What do Nematoda & Arthropoda have in common?
Answer: they grow by shedding their outer covering...
Which group of terms best describes the acoelomorpha?
Which group of terms best describes the acoelomorpha?
Answer: triploblastic; bilaterally symmetric; simple digestive tracts; mobile...
Parasitism is one of the most widespread life strategies ever to revolve. Which of the following is consistent with this finding?
Parasitism is one of the most widespread life strategies ever to revolve. Which of the following is consistent with this finding?
Answer: parasites...
What is NOT true of all arthropods?
What is NOT true of all arthropods?
Answer: they metamorphose during development...
The digestive system of most animals is lined with cells through which nutrients are absorbed. What is the embryonic origin of these cells?
The digestive system of most animals is lined with cells through which nutrients are absorbed. What is the embryonic origin of these cells?
Answe...
If you think if the tube-within-a-tube body plan as a pipe with a straw inside, where would you expect to find most of the ectodermal, mesodermal, & endodermal germ layers, respectively?
If you think if the tube-within-a-tube body plan as a pipe with a straw inside, where would you expect to find most of the ectodermal, mesodermal, &...
An elephant & a mouse are running in full sunlight, & both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade & rest, which animal will cool down faster?
An elephant & a mouse are running in full sunlight, & both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move...
Your professor announces he has discovered a new species of bird that feeds mostly on worms & soft-bodied insects picked up from the ground & off leaves. Based on this information, what shape of beak would predict for this bird?
Your professor announces he has discovered a new species of bird that feeds mostly on worms & soft-bodied insects picked up from the ground &...
Upon close inspection of movement in annelids & nematodes, you would notice an obvious difference. Nematodes tend to wriggle back & forth, while annelids tend to contract along their length as their girth swells & then thin out as they stretch. What anatomical feature explains this type of movement?
Upon close inspection of movement in annelids & nematodes, you would notice an obvious difference. Nematodes tend to wriggle back & forth, while...
Which principle of heat exchange is the most important explanation for why birds look larger in colder weather because they fluff their feathers?
Which principle of heat exchange is the most important explanation for why birds look larger in colder weather because they fluff their feathers?
Answer: fluffing...
In what way are monotremes similar to more ancestral chordate lineages, as opposed to more recently evolved mammals?
In what way are monotremes similar to more ancestral chordate lineages, as opposed to more recently evolved mammals?
Answer: monotremes lay eggs;...
If you were to view a sample of animal tissue under a light microscope and notice an extracellular matrix surrounding the tissue, which tissue type would you conclude you were looking at?
If you were to view a sample of animal tissue under a light microscope and notice an extracellular matrix surrounding the tissue, which tissue type...
If humans were characterized as undergoing metamorphosis, human development from infant to adult would be better described as ____, and human infants would be described as _____.
If humans were characterized as undergoing metamorphosis, human development from infant to adult would be better described as ____, and human infants...
You observe a lizard sitting on a rock on a sunny day. If the lizard is attempting to raise its body temperature, what mechanism of heat transfer is being employed?
You observe a lizard sitting on a rock on a sunny day. If the lizard is attempting to raise its body temperature, what mechanism of heat transfer is...
If you found a fossil fish and had dated it to 400 mya, what feature might indicate that it is actually younger that you first thought?
If you found a fossil fish and had dated it to 400 mya, what feature might indicate that it is actually younger that you first thought?
Answer: four...
If an organism was discovered that had no epithelial tissues, it would require adaptions to maintain homeostasis in which of the following areas?
If an organism was discovered that had no epithelial tissues, it would require adaptions to maintain homeostasis in which of the following areas?
Answer: the...
What would you expect to happen if the midbrain of a fish became damaged?
What would you expect to happen if the midbrain of a fish became damaged?
Answer: its vision would be impaired...
What do all deuterostomes have in common?
What do all deuterostomes have in common?
Answer: the pore formed during gastrulation becomes the anus...
What mollusk group can be classified as suspension feeders?
What mollusk group can be classified as suspension feeders?
Answer: bivalves...
When bone first evolved in vertebrates, what structure did it form?
When bone first evolved in vertebrates, what structure did it form?
Answer: an exoskeleton...
A cephalopod's tentacles are modified from its
A cephalopod's tentacles are modified from its
Answer: foot...
The body cavity type for arthropods and mollusk can best be described as
The body cavity type for arthropods and mollusk can best be described as
Answer: reduced coelom...
What is found in tetrapods and not in fish?
What is found in tetrapods and not in fish?
Answer: production of amniotic eggs...
Which is not a characteristic of all chordates at some point during their life cycle?
Which is not a characteristic of all chordates at some point during their life cycle?
Answer: post-anal tail...
What organism would you expect to have the largest surface-area-to-volume ratio?
What organism would you expect to have the largest surface-area-to-volume ratio?
Answer: a platyhelminth...
What class has distinct central disks and long, flexible arms?
What class has distinct central disks and long, flexible arms?
Answer: class Ophiuroidea...
What is the best evidence currently available that tetrapod limbs evolved from fish fins?
What is the best evidence currently available that tetrapod limbs evolved from fish fins?
Answer: molecular genetic evidence reveals regulatory...
You often need more lighting instruments for controlling the shadows than you do when your goal is to just make something visible. T or F
You often need more lighting instruments for controlling the shadows than you do when your goal is to just make something visible. T or F
Answer...
_______ is the deliberate manipulation of light and shadows for a specific communication purpose.
_______ is the deliberate manipulation of light and shadows for a specific communication purpose.
Answer: Lighti...
As you speed up the shutter, you are letting more light in. T or F
As you speed up the shutter, you are letting more light in. T or F
Answer: Fal...
Anything slower than 1 second (the shutter remains open for one second) will need to use a tripod or some other type of image stabilization because "camera shake" will be visible.
Anything slower than 1 second (the shutter remains open for one second) will need to use a tripod or some other type of image stabilization because...
An aperture of f/2.8 lets less light in through the lens than an aperture of f/22. T or F
An aperture of f/2.8 lets less light in through the lens than an aperture of f/22. T or F
Answer: False
...
Changing the aperture not only affects the light coming into your lens, but also the Depth of Field (the foreground, middleground, and background, and how much of each is in crisp focus). T or F
Changing the aperture not only affects the light coming into your lens, but also the Depth of Field (the foreground, middleground, and background, and...
If you increase the Aperture by one step and decrease the Shutter Speed by one step, you actually end up letting in the exact same amount of light as you did before the two adjustments. T or F
If you increase the Aperture by one step and decrease the Shutter Speed by one step, you actually end up letting in the exact same amount of light as...
When you INCREASE the ISO (for example, an ISO of 3200), which of the following are TRUE
When you INCREASE the ISO (for example, an ISO of 3200), which of the following are TRUE
Answer:
It will introduce noise/grain into the shot.
You...
"The great thing about digital cameras is that they are the ideal testing bed for learning about exposure. You can take as many shots as you like at no cost and they not only allow you to shoot in Auto mode and Manual mode - but also generally have _________ modes like aperture priority (Av) and shutter priority (Tv) modes which allow you to make decisions about one or two elements of the triangle and let the camera handle the other elements.
"The great thing about digital cameras is that they are the ideal testing bed for learning about exposure. You can take as many shots as you like at...
In the "sunbaking" metaphor, which element is represented by "sunscreen"?
In the "sunbaking" metaphor, which element is represented by "sunscreen"?
Answer: Apertu...
The three elements that make up the "exposure triangle" cannot be manipulated without affecting the others (a change in one of the elements will impact the others). T or F
The three elements that make up the "exposure triangle" cannot be manipulated without affecting the others (a change in one of the elements will impact...
The three elements that affect exposure (the "exposure triangle") are:
The three elements that affect exposure (the "exposure triangle") are:
Answer: ISO, Aperture, Shutter Spe...
Which Image-Recording Quality setting will yield a "High Quality" image while still only taking up 6.4 MB (megabytes) of space on the card?
Which Image-Recording Quality setting will yield a "High Quality" image while still only taking up 6.4 MB (megabytes) of space on the card?
Answer: L...
The dioptric adjustment knob allows the viewfinder to be adjusted for clarity (affecting only the viewfinder and not the image itself). T or F
The dioptric adjustment knob allows the viewfinder to be adjusted for clarity (affecting only the viewfinder and not the image itself). T or F
A...
You can disable the flash to prevent it from firing if the situation requires it.
You can disable the flash to prevent it from firing if the situation requires it.
Answer: Tr...
In Manual Exposure Mode , which settings can you adjust?
In Manual Exposure Mode , which settings can you adjust?
Answer: ISO, Aperture, Shutter Spe...
Aperture controls the depth of field (what is in focus). What camera mode does your camera need to be in to manually adjust the aperture (without going fully manual)?
Aperture controls the depth of field (what is in focus). What camera mode does your camera need to be in to manually adjust the aperture (without going...
To create motion blur or freeze action, you need to manually adjust the shutter speed. Which camera mode does your camera have to be in to adjust the shutter speed (without going completely manual)?
To create motion blur or freeze action, you need to manually adjust the shutter speed. Which camera mode does your camera have to be in to adjust the...
What are the steps to get a crisp focus in manual focus?
What are the steps to get a crisp focus in manual focus?
1.Set the lens focus mode switch to
2.Display (and move) the magnifying frame to the position...
Before removing the card from the camera, you should turn the camera OFF. T or F
Before removing the card from the camera, you should turn the camera OFF. T or F
Answer: Tr...
Formatting the card (on both cameras) will erase everything EXCEPT protected images on the card. T or F
Formatting the card (on both cameras) will erase everything EXCEPT protected images on the card. T or F
Answer: False, it will erase everyth...
What is one major difference between the Canon T5i camera and the Canon XSi Camera?
What is one major difference between the Canon T5i camera and the Canon XSi Camera?
Answer: T5i shoots vid...
Because the process of clarification, intensification, and interpretation of events is based on the selection and the specific use of aesthetic elements, the recipient's perceptions are indirectly and, more often, directly _______.
Because the process of clarification, intensification, and interpretation of events is based on the selection and the specific use of aesthetic elements,...
The basic purpose of applied media aesthetics is to clarify, intensify, and interpret events for a specific audience. T or F
The basic purpose of applied media aesthetics is to clarify, intensify, and interpret events for a specific audience. T or F
Answer: Tr...
You must learn how to develop and mold an idea so that it fits the medium's technical as well as aesthetic production and reception requirements. This molding process, called _______, presupposes a thorough knowledge of such production tools as cameras, lenses, lighting, audio, and so forth as well as applied aesthetics, such as selective focus, the proper framing of a shot, the use of color, the selection of music, and the sequencing of various parts of a scene.
You must learn how to develop and mold an idea so that it fits the medium's technical as well as aesthetic production and reception requirements. This...
What are the fundamental and contextual image elements of video and film?
What are the fundamental and contextual image elements of video and film?
Answer: Light and color, sound, space, time/moti...
"Well-known communication scholar Marshall McLuhan proclaimed a half century ago that 'the _______ is the message.' With this insightful overstatement, he meant that the medium, such as television or film, occupies an important position not only in distributing the message, but also in shaping it."
"Well-known communication scholar Marshall McLuhan proclaimed a half century ago that 'the _______ is the message.' With this insightful overstatement,...
When confronted with an aesthetic context, our perceptual processes are so immediate and forceful that we respond to certain stimuli in predictable ways even when we know that we are being perceptually manipulated. T or F
When confronted with an aesthetic context, our perceptual processes are so immediate and forceful that we respond to certain stimuli in predictable...
When we react to contextual cues more viscerally, on a gut level, without much thought about it. This reaction is based more on an immediate, non rational emotional reaction.
When we react to contextual cues more viscerally, on a gut level, without much thought about it. This reaction is based more on an immediate, non rational...
When we interpret an event by a virtual context that we form through our experience and knowledge of how the world works or ought to work, and even through our prejudices. We must engage our cognitive facilities in these situations.
When we interpret an event by a virtual context that we form through our experience and knowledge of how the world works or ought to work, and even...
The context is based on the intentionality of your actions.
The context is based on the intentionality of your actions.
Answer: top-down conte...
The context is imposed by the event itself and you may have little control over it.
The context is imposed by the event itself and you may have little control over it.
Answer: bottom-up conte...
Another of our automatic, 'hardwired' perceptual stabilizers is the _________ principle, whereby we order our surroundings into foreground figures that lie in front of, or move against, a more stable background.
Another of our automatic, 'hardwired' perceptual stabilizers is the _________ principle, whereby we order our surroundings into foreground figures that...
We perceive our world in terms of absolutes. We do not take into account how contextual relationships change. T or F
We perceive our world in terms of absolutes. We do not take into account how contextual relationships change. T or F
Answer: Fal...
_______ media aesthetics is not an abstract concept but a process in which we examine a number of media elements, such as lighting and sound, how they interact, and our perceptual reactions to them.
_______ media aesthetics is not an abstract concept but a process in which we examine a number of media elements, such as lighting and sound, how they...
Which of the following phenomena causes strength gains in the first six to eight weeks of resistance training?
Which of the following phenomena causes strength gains in the first six to eight weeks of resistance training?
A. Increases in the size of muscle fibres
B....
Which of the following items are indications of osteoarthritis?
Which of the following items are indications of osteoarthritis?
A. A thickening of the articular cartilage
B. A thinning of the compact bone under...
What is endochondral ossification?
What is endochondral ossification?
A. It is a developmental process during the early fetal growth period in which there is a rapid multiplication...
A marathon runner is likely to have a high rating in which of the following somatotype components?
A marathon runner is likely to have a high rating in which of the following somatotype components?
A. Endomorphy
B. Mesomorphy
C. Ectomorphy
D. All...
Which of the following units is used to calculate body mass index?
Which of the following units is used to calculate body mass index?
A. Grams and centimetres
B. Kilograms and centimetres
C. Kilograms and metres
D....
Which of the following muscles are parts of the appendicular division of muscles?
Which of the following muscles are parts of the appendicular division of muscles?
A. Rectus abdominis
B. Biceps brachii
C. Iliopsoas
D. All of the...
Mechanically, which of the following factors determines muscle strength?
Mechanically, which of the following factors determines muscle strength?
A. The cross-sectional area of the muscle belly
B. The leverage of the joint
C....
The brachioradialis originates on the humerus and inserts onto the radius. What kind of muscle is it?
The brachioradialis originates on the humerus and inserts onto the radius. What kind of muscle is it?
A. A monoarticular muscle
B. A biarticular muscle
C....
The rectus femoris muscle originates on the anterior aspect of iliac spine and inserts onto the tibial tuberosity. What joint action(s) does it produce when it contracts concentrically?
The rectus femoris muscle originates on the anterior aspect of iliac spine and inserts onto the tibial tuberosity. What joint action(s) does it produce...
The linking of muscle excitation and contraction is caused by the release of what substance into the intracellular fluid of the muscle fibres?
The linking of muscle excitation and contraction is caused by the release of what substance into the intracellular fluid of the muscle fibres?
A....
What is the first step in excitation-contraction coupling?
What is the first step in excitation-contraction coupling?
A. Each myosin filament pulls the actin filament it overlaps with towards its centre
B....
Which of the following are properties of muscle tissue?
Which of the following are properties of muscle tissue?
A. Extensibility
B. Elasticity
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
CAnswer...
Why is muscle considered an active tissue?
Why is muscle considered an active tissue?
A. Because it produces movement
B. Because it responds to neural activation
C. Both A and B
D....
What is a motor unit?
What is a motor unit?
A. It is a single motor nerve and all the muscle fibres that it controls
B. It is the segment of a myofibril between two Z-lines
C....
Anatomically, which of the following movements occurs in the frontal plane?
Anatomically, which of the following movements occurs in the frontal plane?
A. Circumduction
B. Flexion and extension
C. Internal and external...
The distal interphalangeal joint is an example of what kind of joint?
The distal interphalangeal joint is an example of what kind of joint?
A. A hinge joint
B. A complex joint
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
A...
What is a complex joint?
What is a complex joint?
A. A joint that contains an intra-articular structure such as cartilaginous discs or menisci
B. A joint that consists of two...
Which of the following statements about ligaments is/are true?
Which of the following statements about ligaments is/are true?
A. They cross joints to attach muscles to bones
B. They are passive structures that...
Synovial fluid is produced by which synovial joint structure?
Synovial fluid is produced by which synovial joint structure?
A. The articular cartilage
B. The joint capsule
C. The synovial membrane
D....
Which type of anatomical joint allows the largest degrees of movement?
Which type of anatomical joint allows the largest degrees of movement?
A. Fibrous
B. Synovial
C. Cartilaginous
D. All anatomical joints allow identical...
Which of the following statements describes a mechanical function of the axial skeleton?
Which of the following statements describes a mechanical function of the axial skeleton?
A. It creates a framework that supports and protects the brain,...
Which of the following bones are components of the appendicular skeleton?
Which of the following bones are components of the appendicular skeleton?
A. The scapula
B. The patella
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans...
Which of the following bone shapes is best suited to weight bearing and resisting large compressive forces?
Which of the following bone shapes is best suited to weight bearing and resisting large compressive forces?
A. Flat bone
B. Short bone
C. Irregular...
The bones of the rib cage are examples of which bone shape?
The bones of the rib cage are examples of which bone shape?
A. Flat bone
B. Short bone
C. Irregular bone
D. Long bone
Answer: ...
What mechanical properties do calcium salts provide to bone?
What mechanical properties do calcium salts provide to bone?
A. Toughness and flexibility
B. Hardness and rigidity
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor...
Which of the following statements describes a mechanical function of the human skeletal system?
Which of the following statements describes a mechanical function of the human skeletal system?
A. It provides support for weight bearing
B....
Which of the following statements about the transverse plane is/are true?
Which of the following statements about the transverse plane is/are true?
A. It runs along the long axis of the body, extending laterally
B....
Which of the following statements about the sagittal plane is/are true?
Which of the following statements about the sagittal plane is/are true?
A. It runs along the long axis of the body, extending anteriorly and posteriorly
B....
What is functional anatomy?
What is functional anatomy?
A. The study of the structure of the human body at a number of levels of organisation
B. The study of movement and the...
To close an application's form in code, you use the statement __________.
To close an application's form in code, you use the statement __________.
a. Close();
b. Close.This();
c. Close()
d. this.Close();
Answer: ...
Programmers commonly use blank lines and indentations in their code to create a sense of __________.
Programmers commonly use blank lines and indentations in their code to create a sense of __________.
a. logic
b. visual organization
c. documentation
d....
A ___ can occupy multiple consecutive lines in a program.
A ___ can occupy multiple consecutive lines in a program.
a. block comment
b. square comment
c. multiline comment
d. machine comment
Answer:&nbs...
A(an) __________ appears on one line in a program.
A(an) __________ appears on one line in a program.
a. inline comment
b. line comment
c. forward comment
d. block comment
Answer: ...
Most controls have a __________ property that determines whether the control is visible on the form at run time.
Most controls have a __________ property that determines whether the control is visible on the form at run time.
a. Render
b. Viewable
c. Visible
d....
_____ is the image's width to height ratio.
_____ is the image's width to height ratio.
a. Aspect ratio
b. Size ratio
c. Projection ratio
d. Area ratio
Answer: ...
The PictureBox control's __________ property specifies how the control's image is to be displayed.
The PictureBox control's __________ property specifies how the control's image is to be displayed.
a. RenderMode
b. DrawMode
c. SizeMode
d. ImageM...
Once you have created a PictureBox control, you use its __________ property to specify the image that it will display.
Once you have created a PictureBox control, you use its __________ property to specify the image that it will display.
a. Image
b. Source
c. DrawSource
d....
You can use a(n) __________ control to display a graphic image on a form.
You can use a(n) __________ control to display a graphic image on a form.
a. Graphics
b. PictureBox
c. Drawing
d. ImageBox
Answer: ...
________ is a feature of Visual Studio that provides automatic code completion as you write programming statements.
________ is a feature of Visual Studio that provides automatic code completion as you write programming statements.
a. AutoCode
b. AutoComplete
c....
The standard notation for referring to a control's property in code is __________.
The standard notation for referring to a control's property in code is __________.
a.ControlName.PropertyName
b.ControlName=PropertyName
c.Prope...
The equal sign (=) is known as the __________.
The equal sign (=) is known as the __________.
a. equality symbol
b. assignment operator
c. equality operator
d. property position
Answer: ...
In code, you use a(n) __________ to store a value in a control's property.
In code, you use a(n) __________ to store a value in a control's property.
a. Click event
b. method call
c. assignment statement
d. Boolean valu...
The __________ property can be used to change the text's alignment in the label.
The __________ property can be used to change the text's alignment in the label.
a. TextPosition
b. AutoAlign
c. TextCenter
d. TextAlign
Answe...
Label controls have a(n) __________ property that controls the way they can be resized.
Label controls have a(n) __________ property that controls the way they can be resized.
a. Stretch
b. AutoSize
c. Dimension
d. Fixed
Answer:&nb...
A __________ property can be set to one of two possible values: True or False.
A __________ property can be set to one of two possible values: True or False.
a. Boolean
b. Logical
c. Binary
d. Dual
Answer: ...
The __________ property allows you to set the font, font style, and size of the control's text.
The __________ property allows you to set the font, font style, and size of the control's text.
a. Style
b. AutoSize
c. Text
d. Font
Answer:&n...
When you want to display text on a form, you use a __________ control.
When you want to display text on a form, you use a __________ control.
a. Button
b. PictureBox
c. label
d. TextBox
Answer: ...
The time during which an application is executing is referred to as __________.
The time during which an application is executing is referred to as __________.
a. go time
b. design time
c. execution
d. run time
Answer:&nbs...
The time during which you build the GUI and write the application's code is referred to as __________.
The time during which you build the GUI and write the application's code is referred to as __________.
a. run time
b. design time
c. code time
d....
A piece of data that is written into a program's code is a(n) ___________.
A piece of data that is written into a program's code is a(n) ___________.
a. identifier
b. specifier
c. keyword
d. literal
Answer: ...
A(n) __________ marks the end of a programming statement in C#.
A(n) __________ marks the end of a programming statement in C#.
a. semicolon
b. period
c. hyphen
d. underscore
Answer: ...
In programming we use the term string to mean __________.
In programming we use the term string to mean __________.
a. many lines of code
b. parallel memory locations
c. string of characters
d. virtually...
The statement MessageBox.Show("Hello World"); is an example of a(n) __________.
The statement MessageBox.Show("Hello World"); is an example of a(n) __________.
a. method call
b. namespace
c. Click event
d. event handler
An...
A(n) __________ is a method that executes when a specific event takes place while an application is running.
A(n) __________ is a method that executes when a specific event takes place while an application is running.
a. action process
b. event handler
c....
A namespace is container that holds_____.
A namespace is container that holds_____.
a.methods
b. names
c. spaces
d. classes
Answer: ...
A file that contains program code is called a(n) __________.
A file that contains program code is called a(n) __________.
a. destination code file
b. executable file
c. machine language file
d. source code...
The __________ property holds the text that is displayed on the face of the button.
The __________ property holds the text that is displayed on the face of the button.
a.Name
b. Text
c. Tag
d. Face
Answer: ...
________ is the name of the blank form that Visual Studio initially creates in a new project.
________ is the name of the blank form that Visual Studio initially creates in a new project.
a. Form1
b. Main
c. New1
d. Blank
Answer: ...
The small squares that appear on the right edge, bottom edge, and lower-right corner of a form's bounding box are called __________.
The small squares that appear on the right edge, bottom edge, and lower-right corner of a form's bounding box are called __________.
a. sizing hooks
b....
A(n) __________ is the thin dotted line that encloses an object in the Designer.
A(n) __________ is the thin dotted line that encloses an object in the Designer.
a. selection marker
b. control binder
c. bounding box
d. object...
Which of the following is a byproduct of anaerobic glycolysis?
Which of the following is a byproduct of anaerobic glycolysis?
A. Glycogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Adenosine diphosphate
D. Lactic acid
Answer: Lactic...
Which of the following apparatuses should be used to provide the most accurate measure of an elite cyclist's VO2max?
Which of the following apparatuses should be used to provide the most accurate measure of an elite cyclist's VO2max?
A. A treadmill
B. A rowing ergometer
C....
Adenosine triphosphate is resynthesized aerobically in which part of the muscle cell?
Adenosine triphosphate is resynthesized aerobically in which part of the muscle cell?
A. The mitochondrion
B. The sarcomere
C. The neuromuscular...
Which of the following limits the contribution of the oxidative energy system to adenosine triphosphate resynthesis?
Which of the following limits the contribution of the oxidative energy system to adenosine triphosphate resynthesis?
A. Phosphocreatine depletion
B....
In which of the following would the associated energy cost be relatively independent of body mass?
In which of the following would the associated energy cost be relatively independent of body mass?
1. Swimming
2. Jogging
3. Both A and B
4. Neither...
Low-intensity strength training induces hypertrophy in which of the following muscle fibre types?
Low-intensity strength training induces hypertrophy in which of the following muscle fibre types?
A. Type I and Type IIa
B. Type I and Type IIb
C....
Which of the following are metabolic adaptations to endurance training?
Which of the following are metabolic adaptations to endurance training?
A. Increased use of fats as fuel for adenosine triphosphate resynthesis
B....
Which of the following affects the energy costs of exercise?
Which of the following affects the energy costs of exercise?
1. The intensity of the exercise
2. The mechanical efficiency of the person exercising
3....
Which of the energy systems makes the predominant contribution to adenosine triphosphate resynthesis during oxygen deficit?
Which of the energy systems makes the predominant contribution to adenosine triphosphate resynthesis during oxygen deficit?
A. The oxidative and...
Which of the following a product of the series of ten reactions called glycolysis?
Which of the following a product of the series of ten reactions called glycolysis?
A. Phosphocreatine
B. Adenosine diphosphate
C. Glycogen
D. Pyruvic...
Which of the following factors determines exercise capacity?
Which of the following factors determines exercise capacity?
A. How much energy a skeletal muscle cell can produce
B. How quickly energy can be made...
Which principle of training induces continued improvement by progressively increasing training loads?
Which principle of training induces continued improvement by progressively increasing training loads?
A. Overload
B. Individualisation
C. Specificity
D....
To improve muscular strength, training programs must include which of the following?
To improve muscular strength, training programs must include which of the following?
A. High-intensity lifts that induce adaptations in Type IIb...
Which of the following are cardiorespiratory responses to endurance training?
Which of the following are cardiorespiratory responses to endurance training?
A. Increased resting and submaximal heart rate
B. Increased blood volume,...
Which of the following are metabolic adaptations to endurance training?
Which of the following are metabolic adaptations to endurance training?
A. Muscle phosphocreatine stores increase
B. Muscle glycogen stores increase
C....
Which of the following statements about aerobic exercise training during childhood is true?
Which of the following statements about aerobic exercise training during childhood is true?
A. Children need to exercise at higher relative intensities...
Which of the following can be used to fuel aerobic and anaerobic exercise?
Which of the following can be used to fuel aerobic and anaerobic exercise?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Fat
C. Protein
D. All of the above
Answer: ...
Which of the following best describes the VO2 steady state reached during submaximal exercise of constant intensity?
Which of the following best describes the VO2 steady state reached during submaximal exercise of constant intensity?
A. The point at which oxygen...
Which of the following is the fuel used by the anaerobic glycolytic energy system?
Which of the following is the fuel used by the anaerobic glycolytic energy system?
A. Glycogen
B. Triglycerides
C. Amino acids
D. All of the abo...
Which of the following activities would rely most heavily on the phosphagen energy system?
Which of the following activities would rely most heavily on the phosphagen energy system?
A. 800-metre running
B. Weightlifting
C. 1,500-metre running
D....
What is muscular strength?
What is muscular strength?
A. The maximum force that can be produced by a muscle or muscle group in a single movement
B. The ability to generate...
What is muscular power?
What is muscular power?
A. The maximum force that can be produced by a muscle or muscle group in a single movement
B. The ability to generate a large...
Which of the following factors does phosphocreatine replenishment depend upon after exercise?
Which of the following factors does phosphocreatine replenishment depend upon after exercise?
A. The severity of phosphocreatine depletion
B. The...
Which of the following would be most effective for training the phosphagen energy system?
Which of the following would be most effective for training the phosphagen energy system?
A. Short-interval training
B. Intermediate-interval training
C....
Which of the following limits the contribution of the phosphagen energy system to adenosine triphosphate resynthesis?
Which of the following limits the contribution of the phosphagen energy system to adenosine triphosphate resynthesis?
A. Phosphocreatine depletion
B....
What is 'proprietary' private security officer?
What is 'proprietary' private security officer?
Answer: A 'proprietary' private officer is an unarmed individual who is employed exclusively...
When is a guard paid 'double-time'?
When is a guard paid 'double-time'?
Answer: Double the employee's regular rate of pay for all hours worked in excess of 12 hours in any workday...
What is the current California minimum wage?
What is the current California minimum wage?
Answer: $10.50 per hou...
How often is sexual harassment training required for those supervisors to obtain, and what training length?
How often is sexual harassment training required for those supervisors to obtain, and what training length?
Answer: 2 hours, every 2 year...
How many employees or more must a company have to be required by law to have a supervisors take sexual harassment training?
How many employees or more must a company have to be required by law to have a supervisors take sexual harassment training?
Answer: 50 employees...
When can a PPO use a PO Box for an address?
When can a PPO use a PO Box for an address?
Answer: If the PPO's principal place of business is located at the licensee's residenc...
What are the rules about choosing a business name for a PPO license?
What are the rules about choosing a business name for a PPO license?
Answer: Business name choices will not be approved if: 1. If the choice...
What is the longest a PPO license can be expired yet still renewed?
What is the longest a PPO license can be expired yet still renewed?
Answer: 3 year...
What state agency regulates employee-pay issues?
What state agency regulates employee-pay issues?
Answer: Department of Industrial Relation...
What does the state law say about PPO paint choices involving PPO vehicles?
What does the state law say about PPO paint choices involving PPO vehicles?
Answer: Vehicle code 27605 tells that a vehicle is not to be painted...
What does the state law say about PPO vehicles and the used amber lights and any required markings?
What does the state law say about PPO vehicles and the used amber lights and any required markings?
Answer: Vehicle code 25273.b1 tells that...
Who if anyone, regulates guard uniform choices, such as uniform color, badge types, and shoulder patches?
Who if anyone, regulates guard uniform choices, such as uniform color, badge types, and shoulder patches?
Answer: BSIS regulates design &...
If a guard wants to carry tear gas, what is the length of the training class required by BSIS?
If a guard wants to carry tear gas, what is the length of the training class required by BSIS?
Answer: 2 hour...
A renewal registration fee for a guard may not exceed what dollar amount?
A renewal registration fee for a guard may not exceed what dollar amount?
Answer: $3...
If a guard acts as a PPO by contacting a security job with obtaining his/her own client, what crime has been committed?
If a guard acts as a PPO by contacting a security job with obtaining his/her own client, what crime has been committed?
Answer: A misdemeanor...
What is the current actual fee for a PPO Branch Office?
What is the current actual fee for a PPO Branch Office?
Answer: $7...
What is the term length of a guard registration?
What is the term length of a guard registration?
Answer: 2 year...
A registration fee for guard may not exceed what dollar amount?
A registration fee for guard may not exceed what dollar amount?
Answer: $5...
If a guard who either quit or was fired is not given his final pay in the legally allowed time, what is the penalty against the PPO?
If a guard who either quit or was fired is not given his final pay in the legally allowed time, what is the penalty against the PPO?
Answer: The...
The licenses fee for an original PPO license may not exceed what dollar amount?
The licenses fee for an original PPO license may not exceed what dollar amount?
Answer: $70...
If a guard working for a PPO is fired by the PPO, when must the guard be given his/her final pay?
If a guard working for a PPO is fired by the PPO, when must the guard be given his/her final pay?
Answer: Immediatel...
The application and examination fee for an original PPO license may not exceed what dollar amount?
The application and examination fee for an original PPO license may not exceed what dollar amount?
Answer: $50...
If a guard quits working for a PPO with no notice, on a Monday, when must the guard be given his/her final pay?
If a guard quits working for a PPO with no notice, on a Monday, when must the guard be given his/her final pay?
Answer: Within 72 hours (by...
What type of crime is making a false statement on an application for BSIS license or registration?
What type of crime is making a false statement on an application for BSIS license or registration?
Answer: Felony (you sign that application...
If a PPO license or Branch Office certificate is not renewed within __years of its expiration, it may not be renewed.
If a PPO license or Branch Office certificate is not renewed within __years of its expiration, it may not be renewed.
Answer: ...
What is the cost of a replacement baton permit if it is lost or stolen?
What is the cost of a replacement baton permit if it is lost or stolen?
Answer: ...
What are the minimum hours of instruction required of a baton class?
What are the minimum hours of instruction required of a baton class?
Answer: ...
Can lack of required insurance cause the suspension of PPO's license?
Can lack of required insurance cause the suspension of PPO's license?
Answer: Y...
If a PPO wants to carry a firearm, what insurance coverage is required?
If a PPO wants to carry a firearm, what insurance coverage is required?
Answer: Liability Insurance of $500,000 for any one loss due to bodily...
Can a city or county regulate the uniforms of uniformed employees of a PPO, to make them clearly distinguishable from local regular law enforcement officers?
Can a city or county regulate the uniforms of uniformed employees of a PPO, to make them clearly distinguishable from local regular law enforcement...
Until a FQ card is obtained, may a PPO or guard carry a replica (not real) handgun if needed by a job assignment?
Until a FQ card is obtained, may a PPO or guard carry a replica (not real) handgun if needed by a job assignment?
Answer: N...
For a guard to carry a baton, is he/she required to have a certificate of baton training?
For a guard to carry a baton, is he/she required to have a certificate of baton training?
Answer: Ye...
If a licensed PPO wants to go to work as a guard himself/herself, does he/she need to obtain a Guard Registration?
If a licensed PPO wants to go to work as a guard himself/herself, does he/she need to obtain a Guard Registration?
Answer: N...
Does a FQ card allow a gun to be carried concealed upon a person?
Does a FQ card allow a gun to be carried concealed upon a person?
Answer: N...
An FQ card expires when, if not renewed?
An FQ card expires when, if not renewed?
Answer: 2 Years from the date of issuanc...
To replace a lost FQ card costs what fee?
To replace a lost FQ card costs what fee?
Answer: $1...
A PPO's application for PPO license is considered to be 'abandoned' if not complete within how long after it was initially filed?
A PPO's application for PPO license is considered to be 'abandoned' if not complete within how long after it was initially filed?
Answer: One...
Can a hearing be had if a registration is suspended?
Can a hearing be had if a registration is suspended?
Answer: Ye...
If a guard is convicted of a crime substantially related to the functions, duties, or responsibilities of a guard, will the registration be automatically suspended?
If a guard is convicted of a crime substantially related to the functions, duties, or responsibilities of a guard, will the registration be automatically...
If a guard's registration is not renewed within 60 days of its expiration, and is then renewed, what is the 'delinquency fee'?
If a guard's registration is not renewed within 60 days of its expiration, and is then renewed, what is the 'delinquency fee'?
Answer: 50% if...
How often is a PPO license renewed?
How often is a PPO license renewed?
Answer: Every two year...
If a PPO or a PPO employee discharges a firearm within the scope & course of his/her duties, within how many days must a report of this be delivered in writing to the Director of BSIS?
If a PPO or a PPO employee discharges a firearm within the scope & course of his/her duties, within how many days must a report of this be delivered...
If a PPO or PPO employee has an FQ card that says '9mm', may they carry a .38 pistol if in uniform?
If a PPO or PPO employee has an FQ card that says '9mm', may they carry a .38 pistol if in uniform?
Answer: N...
What is the PPO applicant experience requirement?
What is the PPO applicant experience requirement?
Answer: At least one year of experience as a patrol person, guard, or watchman, or the equ...
Who must approve a PPO's badge design?
Who must approve a PPO's badge design?
Answer: The director of BSI...
A violation of badge or shoulder patch rules by a PPO or PPO employees might cause what fine to be assessed?
A violation of badge or shoulder patch rules by a PPO or PPO employees might cause what fine to be assessed?
Answer: $25...
The shoulder patch required to be worn on a PPO's security uniforms must bear what 2 pieces of information?
The shoulder patch required to be worn on a PPO's security uniforms must bear what 2 pieces of information?
Answer: The words "Private Security"...
When may a PPO or PPO's employees use a badge?
When may a PPO or PPO's employees use a badge?
Answer: Only while engaged in guard or patrol work, and while wearing a distinctive unifor...
What fine might be assessed if a PPO's advertisement does not contain the 3 required pieces of information?
What fine might be assessed if a PPO's advertisement does not contain the 3 required pieces of information?
Answer: $25...
Every advertisement of a PPO must contain what 3 pieces of information?
Every advertisement of a PPO must contain what 3 pieces of information?
Answer: Company name, business address or phone number, and license ...
What is the cost of obtaining an additional fictitious business name or to change the PPO's fictitious business name?
What is the cost of obtaining an additional fictitious business name or to change the PPO's fictitious business name?
Answer: $2...
Can the licensing bureau allow a PPO to conduct business under an additional fictitious business name?
Can the licensing bureau allow a PPO to conduct business under an additional fictitious business name?
Answer: Ye...
Is a licensee required to at all times be legally responsible for the good conduct in the business of all of his/her employees, agents, and managers?
Is a licensee required to at all times be legally responsible for the good conduct in the business of all of his/her employees, agents, and manager...
Is a PPO license 'assignable'?
Is a PPO license 'assignable'?
Answer: N...
What do the letters 'Q.M' stand for on a PPO license?
What do the letters 'Q.M' stand for on a PPO license?
Answer: Qualified Manage...
What two proofs of being licensed are sent to the PPO by the licensing bureau?
What two proofs of being licensed are sent to the PPO by the licensing bureau?
Answer: Large license for wall and pocket car...
If the PPO license is not properly posted, what might the fine be?
If the PPO license is not properly posted, what might the fine be?
Answer: $25...
Where must the PPO license be posted?
Where must the PPO license be posted?
Answer: Posted in a conspicuous place in the principal place of busines...
An applicant for a PPO license must be at least how old?
An applicant for a PPO license must be at least how old?
Answer: 1...
If a person is convicted a second time of providing PPO services without a license, he/she can not be issued a PPO license for what time period following this second conviction?
If a person is convicted a second time of providing PPO services without a license, he/she can not be issued a PPO license for what time period following...
If a person is convicted of providing PPO services without a license, he/she cannot be issued a PPO license for what time period following the conviction?
If a person is convicted of providing PPO services without a license, he/she cannot be issued a PPO license for what time period following the conviction?
Answer: One...
If a person knowingly hires an unlicensed person to provide PPO services, what punishment might that person receive?
If a person knowingly hires an unlicensed person to provide PPO services, what punishment might that person receive?
Answer: For the misdemeanor,...
How much imprisonment might come from a felony conviction?
How much imprisonment might come from a felony conviction?
Answer: One year or more imprisonmen...
How much imprisonment might come from a misdemeanor conviction?
How much imprisonment might come from a misdemeanor conviction?
Answer: Up to a year imprisonmen...
Carrying a set of 'brass knuckles' in your pocket is usually what type of crime?
Carrying a set of 'brass knuckles' in your pocket is usually what type of crime?
Answer: Felon...
Carrying a gun concealed under a shirt is usually what type of crime?
Carrying a gun concealed under a shirt is usually what type of crime?
Answer: Misdemeano...
What do the initials "B.S.I.S' stand for?
What do the initials "B.S.I.S' stand for?
Answer: Bureau of security and investigative service...
What agencies other than BSIS are involved in regulating armored car companies?
What agencies other than BSIS are involved in regulating armored car companies?
Answer: California Highway Patrol and Public Utilities Commi...
When, if ever, may a person licensed only as a PPO make an investigation?
When, if ever, may a person licensed only as a PPO make an investigation?
Answer: In incidental to the theft, loss, embezzlement, misappropriation,...
What is the dollar fine for a misdemeanor violation of offering PPO services without a PPO license?
What is the dollar fine for a misdemeanor violation of offering PPO services without a PPO license?
Answer: $10,0...
If a person without a PPO license offers security or protection services to the public, what type of crime has been committed?
If a person without a PPO license offers security or protection services to the public, what type of crime has been committed?
Answer: A misdemeanor...
What is an 'FQ Card'?
What is an 'FQ Card'?
Answer: Firearms qualification card; exposed weapon carry
...
Who, at BSIS, 'shall administer and enforce the rules'?
Who, at BSIS, 'shall administer and enforce the rules'?
Answer: The director of consumer affai...
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