How many listings do you need to have to adjust UPC specific?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B you need at least 4 of six listings and...
What are the recommended ways to take X-rays of upper cervical?
What are the recommended ways to take X-rays of upper cervical?
A. Lateral and APOM
B. Lateral and AP cerv
C. Lateral and APOM and AP cerv
D....
What does Hester's letter "A" eventually come to represent to the townspeople?
What does Hester's letter "A" eventually come to represent to the townspeople?
(A) "Able"
(B) "Alone"
(C) "Avaricious"
(D) "Absolutely
Answer:...
What does Chillingworth pretend to be?
What does Chillingworth pretend to be?
(A) A minister
(B) A doctor
(C) A madman
(D) A scholar
Answer: ...
Where do Hester and Pearl live?
Where do Hester and Pearl live?
(A) In the poorhouse
(B) In an abandoned cottage on the outskirts of Boston
(C) In the forest
(D) In the house of...
What color of clothing does Hester always wear?
What color of clothing does Hester always wear?
(A) Scarlet
(B) White
(C) Black
(D) Gray
Answer: ...
What item of clothing does Hester make for Governor Winthrop?
What item of clothing does Hester make for Governor Winthrop?
(A) A cloak for his swearing-in
(B) A nightcap
(C) A pair of gloves
(D) A winter hat
Answer:...
How does Pearl become wealthy?
How does Pearl become wealthy?
(A) She discovers pirates' treasure.
(B) She marries the governor's son.
(C) She inherits Chillingworth's estate and...
How do Hester and Dimmesdale plan to escape their suffering?
How do Hester and Dimmesdale plan to escape their suffering?
(A) By going to live with the Native Americans
(B) By boarding a ship bound for Europe
(C)...
What mark can supposedly be seen on Dimmesdale's chest?
What mark can supposedly be seen on Dimmesdale's chest?
(A) A scarlet letter "A"
(B) A tattoo
(C) The mark of the devil
(D) A red rose
Answer:...
How does Pearl acknowledge Dimmesdale as her father at his death?
How does Pearl acknowledge Dimmesdale as her father at his death?
(A) By calling him "father"
(B) By interrupting his sermon
(C) By kissing him
(D)...
Why does Pearl not recognize her mother when she sees her with Dimmesdale in the forest?
Why does Pearl not recognize her mother when she sees her with Dimmesdale in the forest?
(A) Hester has removed the scarlet letter.
(B) Hester has...
What natural phenomenon comes to symbolize both Dimmesdale's "sin" and Governor Winthrop's "virtue"?
What natural phenomenon comes to symbolize both Dimmesdale's "sin" and Governor Winthrop's "virtue"?
(A) A lightning bolt
(B) A meteor
(C) A forest...
Next to whom is Hester buried?
Next to whom is Hester buried?
(A) Dimmesdale
(B) Chillingworth
(C) Pearl
(D) No one; her body is burned.
Answer: ...
How does Hester support herself financially?
How does Hester support herself financially?
(A) As a prostitute
(B) As a seamstress
(C) As a nurse
(D) As a farmhand
Answer: ...
How does Mistress Hibbins eventually die?
How does Mistress Hibbins eventually die?
(A) She is strangled by Chillingworth.
(B) She wastes away in a diphtheria epidemic.
(C) She is executed...
Who is Mistress Hibbins?
Who is Mistress Hibbins?
(A) The governor's sister
(B) Hester's mother
(C) Dimmesdale's aunt
(D) Chillingworth's second wife
Answer: ...
In what city do Hester and Pearl live?
In what city do Hester and Pearl live?
(A) Salem
(B) Providence
(C) Boston
(D) Hartford
Answer: ...
Which of the following is a method Dimmesdale uses to punish himself for his sins?
Which of the following is a method Dimmesdale uses to punish himself for his sins?
(A) Scourging or whipping
(B) Fasting
(C) Vigils (extended periods...
What item in the governor's mansion shows Hester a distorted reflection of herself?
What item in the governor's mansion shows Hester a distorted reflection of herself?
(A) An antique mirror
(B) A suit of armor
(C) A stained-glass...
What is situated immediately outside the door of the prison in which Hester is kept?
What is situated immediately outside the door of the prison in which Hester is kept?
(A) A rosebush
(B) A pine tree
(C) A gallows
(D) A graveyard
Answer:...
With whom has Chillingworth been living before he appears in Boston?
With whom has Chillingworth been living before he appears in Boston?
(A) Another band of Puritans
(B) Native Americans
(C) Spanish settlers in Florida
(D)...
Where do Hester and Chillingworth live before coming to America?
Where do Hester and Chillingworth live before coming to America?
(A) Amsterdam
(B) Paris
(C) Edinburgh
(D) Jamaica
Answer: ...
In what century is the story of Hester Prynne set?
In what century is the story of Hester Prynne set?
(A) The sixteenth century
(B) The seventeenth century
(C) The eighteenth century
(D) The nineteenth...
What are the risk factors for chronic disease?
What are the risk factors for chronic disease?
a) Behavioural, biomedical and social
b) Personal, social, economic and environmental
c) Social, behavioural...
What are the determinants of health?
What are the determinants of health?
a) Behavioural, biomedical and social
b) Personal, social, economic and environmental
c) Social, behavioural...
What are the 3 categories of prevention?
What are the 3 categories of prevention?
a) Tertiary, Secondary & Primary
b) Individual, Community & System
c) Intervention management, Building...
What are the 3 categories of intervention?
What are the 3 categories of intervention?
a) Tertiary, Secondary & Primary
b) Individual, Community & System
c) Intervention management,...
What are the 3 CORE functions of a PHN workforce?
What are the 3 CORE functions of a PHN workforce?
a) Tertiary, Secondary & Primary
b) Individual, Community & System
c) Intervention management,...
What statement below best describes the term 'risk factor' in Public Health Nutrition?
What statement below best describes the term 'risk factor' in Public Health Nutrition?
a) Typically seen amongst teenagers where they put themselves...
Population priorities are determined through particular statistics. The most common statistical measures to determine health priorities are;
Population priorities are determined through particular statistics. The most common statistical measures to determine health priorities are;
a) Metabolic...
The National preventative health strategy provides a blueprint for tackling the burden of chronic disease currently caused by obesity, tobacco, and excessive consumption of alcohol. What area of prevention is it concerned with?
The National preventative health strategy provides a blueprint for tackling the burden of chronic disease currently caused by obesity, tobacco, and...
The Responsible Children's Marketing Initiative is mandatory for Food Industry to comply with.
The Responsible Children's Marketing Initiative is mandatory for Food Industry to comply with.
True/False
Answer: Fal...
What is the goal of the Responsible Children's Marketing Initiative?
What is the goal of the Responsible Children's Marketing Initiative?
a) To encourage eco-friendly and sustainable packaging on consumable goods produced...
The Core function(s) for the Public Health Nutrition workforce is to
The Core function(s) for the Public Health Nutrition workforce is to
a) Research and analysis
b) Building capacity
c) Intervention management
d) All...
The number one "global" public health nutrition issue is;
The number one "global" public health nutrition issue is;
a) Nutrition transition
b) Poverty
c) Malnutrition
d) Obesity
Answer: ...
Groups such as the Obesity Policy Coalition advocate for regulation of advertising to children. This is important because
Groups such as the Obesity Policy Coalition advocate for regulation of advertising to children. This is important because
a) If they are not...
"The media do not present simple reflections of external reality. Rather, they present carefully crafted constructions that reflect many decisions and result from many determining factors". Which of the 8 key concepts of media literacy does this relate to?
"The media do not present simple reflections of external reality. Rather, they present carefully crafted constructions that reflect many decisions and...
In the eight concepts of media literacy, the third concept deals with "Audiences negotiating meaning in the media". This means that;
In the eight concepts of media literacy, the third concept deals with "Audiences negotiating meaning in the media". This means that;
a) Media can...
If you were a nutritionist in a local council that contained a high percentage of low socio economic groups , what answer best describes how would you use a graph to inform an intervention strategy?
If you were a nutritionist in a local council that contained a high percentage of low socio economic groups , what answer best describes how would you...
Give an example of the link between behaviour and chronic disease.
Give an example of the link between behaviour and chronic disease.
a) Socio economic status and obesity
b) High price of food and food insecurity
c)...
Public health nutrition focuses on:
Public health nutrition focuses on:
a) The specific dietary needs of individuals
b) Issues that affect the whole adult population
c) Issues that affect...
A socio-ecological approach to public health nutrition would involve:
A socio-ecological approach to public health nutrition would involve:
a) Acknowledgement that health problems are imbedded in the social, economic,...
Which of the following best describes an example of a system-level intervention?
Which of the following best describes an example of a system-level intervention?
a) Advocacy by consumer groups to lobby Federal politicans to outlaw...
Cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes comprise two of Australia's eight national health priority areas. These diseases are more prevalent in low Socioeconomic Status (SES) groups. What risk factor would a public health nutritionist focus on when planning an intervention to reduce the burden of these diseases?
Cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes comprise two of Australia's eight national health priority areas. These diseases are more prevalent in low...
When planning an intervention to prevent chronic disease, such as type 2 diabetes, what modifiable risk factor would you target?
When planning an intervention to prevent chronic disease, such as type 2 diabetes, what modifiable risk factor would you target?
a) Salt reduction
b)...
Bill has recently had a stroke and spends some time in the hospital recovering. Once he is discharged, he is encouraged to come back to the hospital's stroke clinic for some follow up education and undertake some rehabilitation with an occupational therapist and physio. This is an example of:
Bill has recently had a stroke and spends some time in the hospital recovering. Once he is discharged, he is encouraged to come back to the hospital's...
Implementing policy is an example of what type of intervention?
Implementing policy is an example of what type of intervention?
a) Individual
b) Community
c) System
d) All of the above
Answer: ...
When considering the three types of prevention efforts and levels of intervention in public health, how is primary prevention best described?
When considering the three types of prevention efforts and levels of intervention in public health, how is primary prevention best described?
a) Aims...
Sarah is a dietitian who works at a Medicare Local in the Mandurah/Peel region, located 75km south of Perth. She receives referrals from doctors at the Medicare Local as well from other medical practices close by, mainly for middle-aged adults with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. As a way of managing all these referrals, Sarah opts to undertake group education sessions, to help these adults better understand and manage their disease. This is an example of:
Sarah is a dietitian who works at a Medicare Local in the Mandurah/Peel region, located 75km south of Perth. She receives referrals from doctors at...
Antoinette Tyrrell, marketing manager Coca-Cola South Pacific says: "Coke is synonymous with summer fun and the 'Coke Loves Summer' promotion celebrates the bond between Coke and Australia's biggest obsessions. Which propaganda technique was utilised in this fully integrated marketing campaign?
Antoinette Tyrrell, marketing manager Coca-Cola South Pacific says: "Coke is synonymous with summer fun and the 'Coke Loves Summer' promotion celebrates...
Which of the following goals would be appropriate for a child receiving Speech Therapy for an articulation disorder?
Which of the following goals would be appropriate for a child receiving Speech Therapy for an articulation disorder?
Answer: The client will produce...
The following goal is appropriate for which types of disorders: "The client will increase intelligibility thereby becoming easier to understand and improve communication effectiveness."
The following goal is appropriate for which types of disorders: "The client will increase intelligibility thereby becoming easier to understand and...
As a Speech-Languge Pathologist, you evaluate a 4-year old. The following utterance was recorded in a language sample. What phonological process does the child exhibit? "The ca wa bla. The shoe wa blue. I a hungry. Plea rea me a boo abou a toa and fro. Wi you plea? I really wan to go wi ma to the pumpki far."
As a Speech-Languge Pathologist, you evaluate a 4-year old. The following utterance was recorded in a language sample. What phonological process does...
______ is an intensive treatment originally designed to increase loudness in patients with Parkinson disease and is now used with various neurologically-based motor speech disorders.
______ is an intensive treatment originally designed to increase loudness in patients with Parkinson disease and is now used with various neurologically-based...
________ starts with the most stimulable phonological processes and progresses through multiple times until all phonological processes have been addressed.
________ starts with the most stimulable phonological processes and progresses through multiple times until all phonological processes have been addressed.
Answer:...
The following approaches are language-based approaches:
The following approaches are language-based approaches:
Answer: Traditional motor approach & Sensory-motor approac...
______ refers to the ability to perceive differences in another person's speech, whereas _____ refers to the ability to judge one's own ongoing speech.
______ refers to the ability to perceive differences in another person's speech, whereas _____ refers to the ability to judge one's own ongoing speech.
Answer:...
____ is the ability to produce the target phoneme when given focus auditory and visual cues.
____ is the ability to produce the target phoneme when given focus auditory and visual cues.
Answer: Stimulabilit...
_____ refers to how easy it is to understand the individual.
_____ refers to how easy it is to understand the individual.
Answer: Intelligibilit...
In assessment of phonology and articulation, _____ is appropriate for young children and for those whose speech is markedly unintelligible.
In assessment of phonology and articulation, _____ is appropriate for young children and for those whose speech is markedly unintelligible.
Answer:...
_____ is a neurological speech sound disorder that affects the ability to plan and/or program the movement sequences necessary for accurate speech production.
_____ is a neurological speech sound disorder that affects the ability to plan and/or program the movement sequences necessary for accurate speech production.
Answer:...
Speech-sound disorders can have a negative impact on
Speech-sound disorders can have a negative impact on
Answer: Academics, Professional relationships & Personal relationship...
Seventy-five percent of children outgrow their speech sound errors by age ________.
Seventy-five percent of children outgrow their speech sound errors by age ________.
Answer:...
____ are disorders of conceptualization of language rules.
____ are disorders of conceptualization of language rules.
Answer: Phonological disorder...
Most of the phonological processes that toddlers use disappear by age
Most of the phonological processes that toddlers use disappear by age
Answer: ...
Young children use ______ to simplify a difficult word.
Young children use ______ to simplify a difficult word.
Answer: Phonological processe...
At 6-7 months, babbling changes into ______.
At 6-7 months, babbling changes into ______.
Answer: Reduplicated babblin...
By _____, infants are able to imitate tone and pitch and begin babbling.
By _____, infants are able to imitate tone and pitch and begin babbling.
Answer: 5 month...
Consonant phonemes are classified according to
Consonant phonemes are classified according to
Answer: Place, Manner & Voicin...
A _______ is an abnormal opening in an anatomical structure caused by a failure of the structures to fuse or merge correctly early in embryonic development.
A _______ is an abnormal opening in an anatomical structure caused by a failure of the structures to fuse or merge correctly early in embryonic development.
Answer:...
______ are voice disorders that result from emotional suppression.
______ are voice disorders that result from emotional suppression.
Answer: Conversion disorder...
An inability to control vocal intensity of loudness variations may be due to
An inability to control vocal intensity of loudness variations may be due to
Answer: Loss of neural control of the respiratory/laryngeal mechanism...
Voice disorders in children are usually related to ______ and are typically temporary.
Voice disorders in children are usually related to ______ and are typically temporary.
Answer: Vocal misuse/ abu...
For voice disorders, deviations may be in which of the following?
For voice disorders, deviations may be in which of the following?
Answer: Quality, Pitch & Loudnes...
Modifications in the length and _______ of the vocal folds are necessary to produce pitch change.
Modifications in the length and _______ of the vocal folds are necessary to produce pitch change.
Answer: Tensio...
_____ is a result of not varying habitual speaking frequency.
_____ is a result of not varying habitual speaking frequency.
Answer: Monotone voic...
Vocal pitch is measured in ______, whereas vocal loudness is measured in ______.
Vocal pitch is measured in ______, whereas vocal loudness is measured in ______.
Answer: Hertz, Decibel...
_____ is the perceptual correlate of intensity.
_____ is the perceptual correlate of intensity.
Answer: Vocal loudnes...
____ is the perceptual correlate of fundamental frequency associated with the rate of vocal fold vibration.
____ is the perceptual correlate of fundamental frequency associated with the rate of vocal fold vibration.
Answer: Vocal pitc...
Velopharyngeal insufficiency is failure of the velopharyngeal mechanism to separate the ____ and ____ cavities during speech and swallowing.
Velopharyngeal insufficiency is failure of the velopharyngeal mechanism to separate the ____ and ____ cavities during speech and swallowing.
Answer:...
______ is the quality of voice that is produced from sound vibrations in the pharyngeal cavities.
______ is the quality of voice that is produced from sound vibrations in the pharyngeal cavities.
Answer: Resonanc...
An indicator for a positive recovery in someone who stutters is a:
An indicator for a positive recovery in someone who stutters is a:
Answer: Go with the flow, laid back, relaxed temperamen...
The "C" in the ABC's of stuttering refers to
The "C" in the ABC's of stuttering refers to
Answer: The way stuttering makes the individual cognitively perceive and access the world around the...
______ is the consistent ability to move the speech production apparatus in an effortless, smooth and rapid manner.
______ is the consistent ability to move the speech production apparatus in an effortless, smooth and rapid manner.
Answer: Fluen...
The goal of the SLP working with a fluency client is to:
The goal of the SLP working with a fluency client is to:
Answer: Empower the client to develop a feeling of control over their fluen...
According to Mrs. Barbara Kucharski the most important piece of therapy for stuttering clients is:
According to Mrs. Barbara Kucharski the most important piece of therapy for stuttering clients is:
Answer: The client-clinician relationship and feeling...
As many as ______ of preschool children who had been in a stuttering treatment program maintained their fluent speech 5 years after their initial evaluation.
As many as ______ of preschool children who had been in a stuttering treatment program maintained their fluent speech 5 years after their initial evaluation.
Answer:...
Selection of intervention techniques depends on
Selection of intervention techniques depends on
Answer: severity, motivation & specific needs of the clien...
_______ is a fluency shaping technique that reduces speech rate and physical tension before and during occurrences of stuttering, promoting smooth speech.
_______ is a fluency shaping technique that reduces speech rate and physical tension before and during occurrences of stuttering, promoting smooth speech.
Answer:...
Therapy might be recommended if:
Therapy might be recommended if:
Answer: Sound prolongations constitute more than 25% of total disfluencies, There is a loss of eye contact on more...
Three or more within word disfluencies per _____ words may indicate stuttering.
Three or more within word disfluencies per _____ words may indicate stuttering.
Answer: 10...
The ______ theory of stuttering contends that stuttering is a neurotic symptom.
The ______ theory of stuttering contends that stuttering is a neurotic symptom.
Answer: Psychologica...
The _______ theory of stuttering asserts that stuttering is a learned response to conditions external to the individual.
The _______ theory of stuttering asserts that stuttering is a learned response to conditions external to the individual.
Answer: Behaviora...
The _______ theory of stuttering proposes an actual physical cause for stuttering.
The _______ theory of stuttering proposes an actual physical cause for stuttering.
Answer: Organi...
In Phase Four of the developmental framework of stuttering, which of the following is true?
In Phase Four of the developmental framework of stuttering, which of the following is true?
Answer: There is evidence of fear, embarrassment, or ...
In Phase One of the developmental framework of stuttering, which of the following is true?
In Phase One of the developmental framework of stuttering, which of the following is true?
Answer: Most children are unaware or are not bothered by...
Onset of developmental stuttering is between what ages?
Onset of developmental stuttering is between what ages?
Answer: 2-...
______ is typically associated with neurological disease or trauma.
______ is typically associated with neurological disease or trauma.
Answer: neurogenic stuttering.
...
______ is the most common form of stuttering; it occurs in the preschool years.
______ is the most common form of stuttering; it occurs in the preschool years.
Answer: developmental stutterin...
Which of the following are secondary characteristics that can co-occur with stuttering?
Which of the following are secondary characteristics that can co-occur with stuttering?
Answer: eye blinking, facial grimacing & exaggerated movements...
Satyagraha means:
Satyagraha means:
A. Individual strength and is non-confrontational way of submitting one's will to the opponent.
B. Truth force and is a confrontational,...
Initially, the Indian National Congress, or INC was a(n) _________ group that wanted only __________ demands.
Initially, the Indian National Congress, or INC was a(n) _________ group that wanted only __________ demands.
A. Urban, radical.
B. Rural, radical.
C....
One of Ghandi's and the INC's biggest challenges was to
One of Ghandi's and the INC's biggest challenges was to
A. Overturn the similar "group think" that lacked creativity and energy.
B. To fight against...
Once released from prison, Nelson Mandela concluded his speech as a free person with
Once released from prison, Nelson Mandela concluded his speech as a free person with
A. The Beatitudes, "Blessed are the Peacemakers"
B. with the...
What of the following did the People's Republic of China (PRC) NOT promise to protect?
What of the following did the People's Republic of China (PRC) NOT promise to protect?
A. Lower taxes
B. Public speaking
C. Lower rents
D. Protect...
The Communists were saved in 1934 because they
The Communists were saved in 1934 because they
A. Successfully fought the Japanese
B. Fled to the West in 1934 in the Long March
C. Fought the Guomindong
D....
"Cadres" were:
"Cadres" were:
A. Activist leaders who inspired peasants to "speak bitterness" in public meetings and "struggle" with landlords.
B. Leaders of guerilla...
Much of the CCP's (Chinese Communist Party) support came from:
Much of the CCP's (Chinese Communist Party) support came from:
A. The successful guerilla tactics that provided some security to the peasants against...
The Chinese Communist Party of CCP did all of the following EXCEPT:
The Chinese Communist Party of CCP did all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Toppled the Provisional Government
B. Grew from only 60 members
C. Fought...
Stalin: Gulag Mao: ________
Stalin: GulagMao: ________
A. Purges
B. Great Leap Forward
C. Secret Police
D. Chinese cultural revolution
Answer:...
Mao's concern with many of his propaganda campaigns was to _______.
Mao's concern with many of his propaganda campaigns was to _______.
A. Protect traditional Chinese cultural from Western imperialism.
B. Destroy "bourgeois...
The ________________ was a strong organization for women's rights in the early Soviet Union that pushed for trained women to run day care centers and medical clinics, development of the press oriented towards women, and literacy and prenatal classes.
The ________________ was a strong organization for women's rights in the early Soviet Union that pushed for trained women to run day care centers and...
Under the Soviet Regimes, rights such as _____________ were granted early in the revolution to women.
Under the Soviet Regimes, rights such as _____________ were granted early in the revolution to women.
A. Free speech
B. Freedom of political organization
C....
Communist party objectives resulted in a political system dominated entirely by
Communist party objectives resulted in a political system dominated entirely by
A. The Communist Party
B. The liberation of mankind
C. Pure democracy
D....
All of the following used hunger striking to gain political rights EXCEPT:
All of the following used hunger striking to gain political rights EXCEPT:
A. British and American suffragists
B. the rebels in Star Wars
C. Ghandi
D....
Martin Luther King believed that it was immoral to have a law demanding a permit for a parade in any circumstance
Martin Luther King believed that it was immoral to have a law demanding a permit for a parade in any circumstance
A. False, it was immoral if that...
Nkrumah was advocating for a United Africa for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
Nkrumah was advocating for a United Africa for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. The needs of self-defense could be better shared and monies...
In most African countries, economic success was found
In most African countries, economic success was found
A. In producing green energy technologies
B. By creating competitive textile industries
C....
While colonial rule had been authoritarian and bureaucratic, with little interest in African participation during the 1950s, European governments tried to
While colonial rule had been authoritarian and bureaucratic, with little interest in African participation during the 1950s, European governments tried...
In Japan the 1920's women cutting their hair, universal suffrage for men, and political protests such as the "rice riots" were all examples of growing
In Japan the 1920's women cutting their hair, universal suffrage for men, and political protests such as the "rice riots" were all examples of growing
A....
Keynesian economics describes the belief
Keynesian economics describes the belief
A. That the government should ALWAYS strive to keep a balanced budget.
B. That it is ok for the government...
In the 1920's democratic parties in Italy and Germany faced problems because of
In the 1920's democratic parties in Italy and Germany faced problems because of
A. Nationalistic tension
B. The challenges posed by the League...
According to Hitler, almost all scientific, artistic, and technological advances were products of:
According to Hitler, almost all scientific, artistic, and technological advances were products of:
A. Women
B. The Aryan
C. The Jews
D. Men
Answer:...
Mussolini believed
Mussolini believed
A. That the highest authority was the state that had a moral and ethical will.
B. That individual freedoms were important and to...
On an aggregate demand curve, a recession is when
On an aggregate demand curve, a recession is when
A. The government spends money in the short run in order to increase the curve,
B. The curve shifts...
"Falling Waters" is an example of _________ in architecture.
"Falling Waters" is an example of _________ in architecture.
A. Surrealism
B. Functionalism
C. A-Tonal
D. Naturalism
Answer:...
Hemingway wrote a Farewell to Arms that ________ was obscene.
Hemingway wrote a Farewell to Arms that ________ was obscene.
A. The names of rivers
B. The names of towns
C. Empty words such as honor, glory, hallow.
D....
Duchamp's urinal is an example of _________ art.
Duchamp's urinal is an example of _________ art.
A. Surrealist
B. Dadaist
C. Cubist
D. A-Tonal
Answer:...
Which of these scientific ideas were expressed in surrealist art?
Which of these scientific ideas were expressed in surrealist art?
A. Newton's law of physics.
B. Freud's studies of the subconscious.
C. Bohr's theory...
Which of the following was a result of WWI?
Which of the following was a result of WWI?
A. Nationalism
B. Cynicism
C. The belief that rational thought would lead to world peace.
D. Optimism
Answer:...
One of the reasons that the Serbs were so angry about the Archduke Francis Ferdinand's parades in Sarajevo was that he chose to visit the Slavic Capital
One of the reasons that the Serbs were so angry about the Archduke Francis Ferdinand's parades in Sarajevo was that he chose to visit the Slavic Capital
A....
Europe began the twentieth century as a fragmented and competitive whole. One example of how these rivalries continued was
Europe began the twentieth century as a fragmented and competitive whole. One example of how these rivalries continued was
A. German unification.
B....
John Maynard Keynes believed that
John Maynard Keynes believed that
A. The government should return to the gold standard.
B. The government's ability to spend money could help to...
One of the causes of the global great depression was
One of the causes of the global great depression was
A. The increased security of banks
B. Increased amount of global capital.
C. Overproduction...
The Great Depression resulted in
The Great Depression resulted in
A. Banks closing, loss of savings, and unemployment.
B. Increased international trade
C. Decreased unemployment
D....
Mother;s Day in France was designed to
Mother;s Day in France was designed to
A. Celebrate the traditional nature of the family.
B. Celebrate a group of women who would replace an entire...
As a result of WWI, India
As a result of WWI, India
A. Started down the road to self government.
B. Extended colonial powers into the social hierarchy.
C. Hardened its colonial...
In Russia, WWI led to
In Russia, WWI led to
A. The continuation of war
B. The extension and empowerment of the Tsar.
C. A democratic and then a communist revolution.
D....
The principle of self-determination meant that
The principle of self-determination meant that
A. The right to conquer the neighboring state.
B. The right to remilitarize
C. A nation had the right...
WWI was a war of attrition which means
WWI was a war of attrition which means
A. It was a tactical war that sought to win capitals in order to gain power.
B. This war was about who had...
One of the effects of colonization was the development of
One of the effects of colonization was the development of
A. Nationalist movements in colonized countries.
B. The acceptance of Latin as a universal...
According to the article by Straussman and O'Connor, under the Meiji Restoration,
According to the article by Straussman and O'Connor, under the Meiji Restoration,
A. The Samurai completely lost the traditional power that they maintained...
Which of the following countries possessed the largest colonial territories?
Which of the following countries possessed the largest colonial territories?
A. France
B. Ethiopia
C. China
D. Great Britain
Answer:...
According to Richard Kipling, "The White Man's Burden"
According to Richard Kipling, "The White Man's Burden"
A. Is imperialism
B. Is caused by the need to decolonize
C. Is the suffering caused to the...
Many countries were ruled as colonies through
Many countries were ruled as colonies through
A. Indirect rule; native populations produced rulers that cooperated with colonial administrators and...
What made colonization of Africa possible in the nineteenth century?
What made colonization of Africa possible in the nineteenth century?
A. Horses
B. European steel
C. the decimation of African indigenous populations...
What did the British finally sell to China that was also pictured on John Greene's chalk board?
What did the British finally sell to China that was also pictured on John Greene's chalk board?
A. Railroad trains
B. Opium
C. Flaming monkeys
D....
Ethiopia and Siam were unusual
Ethiopia and Siam were unusual
A. the fact that Italy took both of those countries as colonies.
B. those countries both played significant...
The Maxim gun was
The Maxim gun was
A. The biggest gun on the market.
B. A gun used by the Spanish during the conquest of the Aztecs.
C. A gun designed by a men's magazine.
D....
Strayer argued that there were two periods of colonization between fifteenth century and the nineteenth century. Which of the following differentiated the two periods?
Strayer argued that there were two periods of colonization between fifteenth century and the nineteenth century. Which of the following differentiated...
Strayer argued that the reason the white driver did not speak English with the boys from Kenya was because
Strayer argued that the reason the white driver did not speak English with the boys from Kenya was because
A. of the traditional belief that...
The Boxer rebellion was significant because
The Boxer rebellion was significant because
A. It impressed the West with the martial arts of "the Other."
B. It began Chinese colonialism.
C. It...
The Treaty of Nanjing was the first of what was called
The Treaty of Nanjing was the first of what was called
A. The Celestial treaties
B. the opium treaties
C. the imperial treaties
D. the unequal treaties
Answer:...
Lin Zexu described by Strayer as a "drug czar" was responsible for
Lin Zexu described by Strayer as a "drug czar" was responsible for
A. Certifying the safe use and clean facilities in opium dens.
B. Seizing and destroying...
Emperor Qianlong was interested in:
Emperor Qianlong was interested in:
A. Expanding trade with GB to include Chusan.
B. Allowing foreign missionaries free reign throughout his country.
C....
For centuries, opium had been used by Arab traders as a
For centuries, opium had been used by Arab traders as a
A. way to improve Britain's trade imbalance.
B. Drinkable medicine
C. An exotic substance...
Which of the following was NOT a new professional study that developed in the late nineteenth century?
Which of the following was NOT a new professional study that developed in the late nineteenth century?
A. Sociology
B. Psychology
C. Physics
D. History
Answer:...
The best term to describe what Edward Said argued by the late nineteenth century was a European focused view of non-European peoples as lesser, exotic, or childlike peoples:
The best term to describe what Edward Said argued by the late nineteenth century was a European focused view of non-European peoples as lesser, exotic,...
By the 1750's, Japan was an increasingly
By the 1750's, Japan was an increasingly
A. urban country
B. Feudal kingdom
C. An industrialized powerhouse
D. An international tourist destination
Answer:...
Under the Tokugawa Shogunate, Japan
Under the Tokugawa Shogunate, Japan
A. Existed as a peaceful, but disunified nation state.
B. Was in an continual state of civil war.
C. Had modernized...
In 1853 Commodore Perry came with his ________ to Tokyo Bay.
In 1853 Commodore Perry came with his ________ to Tokyo Bay.
A. Black ships
B. Large cannons
C. Submarines
D. Whaling boats
Answer:...
The Young Turks advocated for all of the following EXCEPT:
The Young Turks advocated for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Child marriage.
B. Education of women.
C. Propagation of Turkish as the national language.
D....
The young Ottomans sought to do all of the following EXCEPT:
The young Ottomans sought to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Bind women's feet.
B. Embrace Western technology.
C. Have a European styled democratic...
By 1839 all ________ had equal political power under the government.
By 1839 all ________ had equal political power under the government.
A. Citizens regardless of religion.
B. Men and women
C. All islamic men.
D....
Sultan Selim III was
Sultan Selim III was
A. overthrown and murdered in response to his reforms.
B. celebrated because of his reforms.
C. Mande a national hero because...
The Janissaries were
The Janissaries were
A. An outdated military group that was becoming a conservative force within the empire.
B. A revolutionary group of student...
Which of these countries was known as the Sick man of Europe?
Which of these countries was known as the Sick man of Europe?
A. Ottoman Empire
B. China
C. Japan
D. France
Answer:...
Naoroji believes that the British
Naoroji believes that the British
A. that Calcutta is a beautiful city.
B. Want an independent India.
C. Have brought moral benefits but ultimately...
Roy in his letter to Lord Amherst in 1823 wants
Roy in his letter to Lord Amherst in 1823 wants
A. the schools to teach traditional Indian subjects.
B. The British to go back to England.
C. The...
Often times education was associated with the development of
Often times education was associated with the development of
A. political equality.
B. Christianity
C. participation in democratic governments.
D....
Education often times meant
Education often times meant
A. The creation of Western styled democracies in newly colonized territories.
B. The end of traditional culture.
C. that...
Japan was unique in the imperial world because
Japan was unique in the imperial world because
A. it became an industrial success that maintained its own culture.
B. it became a colony of the United...
As a result of colonization, women in Africa generally:
As a result of colonization, women in Africa generally:
A. grew closer to their husbands because they had more time together.
B. Worked more hours...
King Leopold II was known for
King Leopold II was known for
A. The creation of the caste system in India.
B. His use of Brahmin as a native tongue.
C. His vicious rule in the Belgian...
In colonized territories, subsistence framing often disappeared and _____ replaced it.
In colonized territories, subsistence framing often disappeared and _____ replaced it.
A. Western democratic society
B. A liberal, egalitarian or...
Caste System: India Tribe: ______
Caste System: IndiaTribe: ______
A. Africa
B. South America
C. Japan
D. China
Answer:...
Although Europeans in colonized territories supported education:
Although Europeans in colonized territories supported education:
A. They rarely allowed highly educated indigenous people to serve in high ranks...
Which of these is NOT a consequence of the Sepoy rebellion?
Which of these is NOT a consequence of the Sepoy rebellion?
A. India was placed under the governmental control of Great Britain.
B. It led to the...
The Sepoy rebellion started in response to:
The Sepoy rebellion started in response to:
A. The introduction of cartridges that used both pig and cow fat.
B. A new law that further segregated...
If the Peclet number is greater than 1, convection dominates.
If the Peclet number is greater than 1, convection dominates.
Answer: Tr...
If the Reynolds number is greater than 1, inertial forces dominate.
If the Reynolds number is greater than 1, inertial forces dominate.
Answer: Tr...
The quasi-steady-state assumption is used when the time for the reactant to undergo reaction is much faster than the time to form a reactant.
The quasi-steady-state assumption is used when the time for the reactant to undergo reaction is much faster than the time to form a reactant.
Answer:...
The reaction stoichiometry relates the reaction rates of reactants and products.
The reaction stoichiometry relates the reaction rates of reactants and products.
Answer: Tr...
In a diffusion limited reaction, the limiting step for a chemical reaction to occur is the orientation of the molecules when they come in contact.
In a diffusion limited reaction, the limiting step for a chemical reaction to occur is the orientation of the molecules when they come in contact.
Answer:...
In a reversible reaction, the order of the forward reaction and reverse reaction are always of the same order.
In a reversible reaction, the order of the forward reaction and reverse reaction are always of the same order.
Answer: Fal...
In first order reactions, the concentration disappears exponentially in time.
In first order reactions, the concentration disappears exponentially in time.
Answer: Tr...
The units of the rate coefficient depend on the order of the reaction.
The units of the rate coefficient depend on the order of the reaction.
Answer: Tr...
The rate coefficient depends on the concentration of reactants and products.
The rate coefficient depends on the concentration of reactants and products.
Answer: Fal...
Heterogeneous reactions occur at an interface and the reaction rates appear in the boundary conditions.
Heterogeneous reactions occur at an interface and the reaction rates appear in the boundary conditions.
Answer: Tr...
Homogenous reactions occur throughout a single phase and the reaction rates appear in the diffusion equation.
Homogenous reactions occur throughout a single phase and the reaction rates appear in the diffusion equation.
Answer: Tr...
Reaction rates represent the amount of reactant consumed or product produced per unit area per unit time.
Reaction rates represent the amount of reactant consumed or product produced per unit area per unit time.
Answer: Fal...
Random coils can adopt a number of configurations, and the root mean squared end to end distance can be described in terms of a modified random walk.
Random coils can adopt a number of configurations, and the root mean squared end to end distance can be described in terms of a modified random walk.
Answer:...
Water that is firmly associated with the protein increase the size of the molecules altering the frictional coefficient.
Water that is firmly associated with the protein increase the size of the molecules altering the frictional coefficient.
Answer: Tr...
The frictional coefficient cannot be determined from the particle sedimentation rates.
The frictional coefficient cannot be determined from the particle sedimentation rates.
Answer: Fal...
For a sphere of radius R, the friction coefficient is proportional to the radius of the sphere.
For a sphere of radius R, the friction coefficient is proportional to the radius of the sphere.
Answer: Tr...
For low Reynolds number flow, the drag force on the molecule is proportional to the particle velocity.
For low Reynolds number flow, the drag force on the molecule is proportional to the particle velocity.
Answer: Tr...
In Brownian motion, the region of space that is sampled by the diffusing molecules grows with time.
In Brownian motion, the region of space that is sampled by the diffusing molecules grows with time.
Answer: Tr...
The mean displacement of N particles is proportional to the size of the particles.
The mean displacement of N particles is proportional to the size of the particles.
Answer: Fal...
In liquids and gasses, diffusion arises from molecular interactions.
In liquids and gasses, diffusion arises from molecular interactions.
Answer: Tr...
Solute equilibrium at the interface between two immiscible fluids states that the concentration is the same.
Solute equilibrium at the interface between two immiscible fluids states that the concentration is the same.
Answer: Fal...
Fick's first law states that the diffusive flux of a dissolved solute equals the negative product of the diffusion coefficient and the concentration gradient.
Fick's first law states that the diffusive flux of a dissolved solute equals the negative product of the diffusion coefficient and the concentration...
When convection is present, the following equation is true. Ni = -Dij(grad)Ci + Ci*vs.
When convection is present, the following equation is true. Ni = -Dij(grad)Ci + Ci*vs.
Answer: Tr...
If a chemical reaction occurs at a surface, then the flux to the surface equals the rate of reaction.
If a chemical reaction occurs at a surface, then the flux to the surface equals the rate of reaction.
Answer: Tr...
If your boundary condition is impermeable, there is no flux across it.
If your boundary condition is impermeable, there is no flux across it.
Answer: Tr...
The conservation of mass for the i component in a solution states: The rate of accumulation of i within a volume is equal to the moles of i entering across a surface of area S minus the moles of i leaving across a surface of area S plus the rate of production of i by chemical reactions within the volume.
The conservation of mass for the i component in a solution states: The rate of accumulation of i within a volume is equal to the moles of i entering...
Under most physiological conditions, the dilute solution assumption is valid.
Under most physiological conditions, the dilute solution assumption is valid.
Answer: Tr...
A dilute solution is defined as a solution in which the solvent is the dominant component.
A dilute solution is defined as a solution in which the solvent is the dominant component.
Answer: Tr...
Fluid shear stress can be considered a momentum flux.
Fluid shear stress can be considered a momentum flux.
Answer: True
...
Flux is the amount of material crossing a unit area normal to the direction of transport in a given unit of time.
Flux is the amount of material crossing a unit area normal to the direction of transport in a given unit of time.
Answer: Tr...
The recommended Work:Rest ratio for training the oxidative system is
The recommended Work:Rest ratio for training the oxidative system is
a) 1:12
b) 1:5
c) 1:1
d) 2:1
Answer: ...
The recommended Work:Rest ratio for training oxidative (slow) glycolysis is
The recommended Work:Rest ratio for training oxidative (slow) glycolysis is
a) 1:3 to 1:4
b) 1:1 to 1:3
c) 2:1 to 3:1
d) 3:1 to 4:1
Answer:...
The recommended Work:Rest ratio for training fast glycolysis is
The recommended Work:Rest ratio for training fast glycolysis is
a) 1:3 to 1:5
b) 2:1 to 4:1
c) 1:1 to 1:3
d) 1:6 to 1:8
Answer: ...
The recommended Work:Rest ratio for training the phosphagen system is
The recommended Work:Rest ratio for training the phosphagen system is
a) 1:3 to 1:5
b) 2:1 to 3:1
c) 1:12 to 1:20
d) 1:1 to 1:8
Answer:...
The work duration of a pace/tempo workout should be
The work duration of a pace/tempo workout should be
a) 20-30 min
b) 3-5 min
c) 30-120 min
d) 30-90 seconds
Answer: ...
The Work:Rest ratio for repetition training is
The Work:Rest ratio for repetition training is
a) 1:1
b) 1:5
c) 1:2
d) 1:6
Answer: ...
The Work:Rest ratio for interval training is
The Work:Rest ratio for interval training is
a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:3
d) 1:4
Answer: ...
The work duration of a interval workout should be
The work duration of a interval workout should be
a) 20-30 min
b) 3-5 min
c) 30-120 min
d) 30-90 seconds
Answer: ...
The work duration of a repetition workout should be
The work duration of a repetition workout should be
a) 20-30 min
b) 3-5 min
c) 30-120 min
d) 30-90 seconds
Answer: ...
The work duration of a long slow distance (LSD) workout should be
The work duration of a long slow distance (LSD) workout should be
a) 20-30 min
b) 3-5 min
c) 30-120 min
d) 30-90 seconds
Answer: ...
The most effective percent of maximum oxygen uptake to use during interval training is
The most effective percent of maximum oxygen uptake to use during interval training is
a) 70%
b) 100%
c) 105%
d) 80%
Answer: ...
The most effective percent of maximum oxygen uptake to use during repetition training is
The most effective percent of maximum oxygen uptake to use during repetition training is
a) 70%
b) 100%
c) 105%
d) 80%
Answer: ...
The most effective percent of maximum oxygen uptake used during long slow distance (LSD) training is
The most effective percent of maximum oxygen uptake used during long slow distance (LSD) training is
a) 70%
b) 100%
c) 105%
d) 80%
Answer:...
What percent of a 1 RM is a 8 RM load equal to
What percent of a 1 RM is a 8 RM load equal to
a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 75%
d) 80%
Answer: ...
What percent of a 1 RM is a 4 RM load equal to
What percent of a 1 RM is a 4 RM load equal to
a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 75%
d) 80%
Answer: ...
What percent of a 1 RM is a 6 RM load equal to
What percent of a 1 RM is a 6 RM load equal to
a) 85%
b) 67%
c) 75%
d) 80%
Answer: ...
What percent of a 1 RM is a 12 RM load equal to
What percent of a 1 RM is a 12 RM load equal to
a) 85%
b) 67%
c) 75%
d) 80%
Answer: ...
What percent of a 1 RM is a 10 RM load equal to
What percent of a 1 RM is a 10 RM load equal to
a) 85%
b) 67%
c) 75%
d) 80%
Answer: ...
The BEST rest interval between sets for muscular power is
The BEST rest interval between sets for muscular power is
a) 30-90 seconds
b) Less than or equal to 30 seconds
c) greater than 5 minutes
d) 2-5 minutes
Answer:...
The BEST rest interval between sets for muscular strength is
The BEST rest interval between sets for muscular strength is
a) 30-90 seconds
b) Less than or equal to 30 seconds
c) greater than 5 minutes
d) 2-5...
The BEST rest interval between sets for muscular hypertrophy is
The BEST rest interval between sets for muscular hypertrophy is
a) 30-90 seconds
b) Less than or equal to 30 seconds
c) greater than 5 minutes
d)...
The BEST rest interval between sets for muscular endurance is
The BEST rest interval between sets for muscular endurance is
a) 30-90 seconds
b) Less than or equal to 30 seconds
c) greater than 5 minutes
d)...
A load of 80% - 90% of the 1RM is BEST to train muscular
A load of 80% - 90% of the 1RM is BEST to train muscular
a) multiple-effort power
b) strength
c) hypertrophy
d) single-effort power
Answer:...
A load of 75% - 85% of the 1RM is BEST to train muscular
A load of 75% - 85% of the 1RM is BEST to train muscular
a) multiple-effort power
b) strength
c) endurance
d) single-effort power
Answer:...
A load of 85% of the 1RM is BEST to train muscular
A load of 85% of the 1RM is BEST to train muscular
a) multiple-effort power
b) strength
c) hypertrophy
d) single-effort power
Answer:...
A load of 67% - 85% of the 1RM is BEST to train muscular
A load of 67% - 85% of the 1RM is BEST to train muscular
a) endurance
b) strength
c) hypertrophy
d) power
Answer: ...
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve multiple-effort power is
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve multiple-effort power is
a) 1-2
b) 6-12
c) 2-6
d) 3-5
Answer: ...
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve single-effort power is
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve single-effort power is
a) 1-2
b) 6-12
c) 2-6
d) 3-5
Answer: ...
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve muscle endurance is
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve muscle endurance is
a) greater than or equal to 12
b) 1-2
c) less than or equal to 6
d)...
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve muscle size is
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve muscle size is
a) greater than or equal to 12
b) 6-12
c) less than or equal to 6
d) 3-5
Answer:...
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve strength is
The BEST repetition scheme for a program designed to improve strength is
a) greater than or equal to 12
b) 6-12
c) less than or equal to 6
d) 3-5
Answer:...
The most effective number of set to increase single effort power is
The most effective number of set to increase single effort power is
a) 1-3
b) 3-5
c) 2-6
d) 4-8
Answer: ...
The most effective number of set to increase multiple effort power is
The most effective number of set to increase multiple effort power is
a) 3-5
b) 1-3
c) 2-6
d) 4-8
Answer: ...
The most effective number of set to increase endurance is
The most effective number of set to increase endurance is
a) 4-8
b) 1-3
c) 3-5
d) 2-3
Answer: ...
The most effective number of set to increase Hypertrophy is
The most effective number of set to increase Hypertrophy is
a) 2-6
b) 1-3
c) 3-5
d) 4-8
Answer: ...
The most effective number of set to increase strength is
The most effective number of set to increase strength is
a) 3-5
b) 1-3
c) 2-6
d) 4-8
Answer: ...
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