What are the two types of fog?
a. Radiation
b. Advection
What are the two types of fog?
a. Radiation
b. Advection
a. Radiation
b. Advection
What is a ceiling?
What is a ceiling?
a. Height above ground (AGL)
b. Vertical Visibility (VV) into an obscuring phenomenon
What is sky coverage?
What is sky coverage?
Answer: The amount of sky covered by clouds, reported in eighths. Includes coverage at the lowest cloud layer plus the additional coverage present at all successively higher cloud layers.
What are the types of obscuring phenomena?
What are the types of obscuring phenomena?
a. Fog
b. Haze
c. Smoke
d. Rain and drizzle
e. Snow
f. Blowing snow, dust, or sand
What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?
What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?
Answer: Horizontal distance seen by looking down the runway from approach end.
How is visibility expressed?
How is visibility expressed?
a. Statute miles
b. Hundreds of feet
c. Meters
To avoid icing, why would climbing to a colder temperature be a consideration?
To avoid icing, why would climbing to a colder temperature be a consideration?
Answer: Frozen moisture is not an icing hazard
What type of front is associated with mixed icing?
What type of front is associated with mixed icing?
Answer: Occluded front
What type of front is associated with rime icing?
What type of front is associated with rime icing?
Answer: Warm front
What are the types of icing?
What are the types of icing?
a. Clear
b. Rime
c. Mixed
d. Frost
What are the requirements for icing?
What are the requirements for icing?
a. Visible moisture
b. Super-cooled water droplets
c. Free air temperature and aircraft's surface temperature below freezing
True or false? A wind shear is always caused by a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance vertically.
True or false? A wind shear is always caused by a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance vertically.
Answer: False. A wind shear can be caused by a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance, either vertically or horizontally.
Frontal turbulence is caused by warm air lifted by a ______.
Frontal turbulence is caused by warm air lifted by a ______.
Answer: cold front
Thermal turbulence is also known as ______.
Thermal turbulence is also known as ______.
Answer: convective turbulence
During ______ you will experience large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude.
During ______ you will experience large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude.
Answer: severe turbulence
What are the turbulence intensity classifications?
What are the turbulence intensity classifications?
a. Light
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Extreme
True or false? A wind shift and temperature change do not occur during the passage of an inactive front.
True or false? A wind shift and temperature change do not occur during the passage of an inactive front.
Answer: False. Wind shift and temperature change still occurs.
An occluded front is formed when a ______ front overtakes a ______ front.
An occluded front is formed when a ______ front overtakes a ______ front.
Answer: cold; warm
What type of wind shift will you expect to find when encountering a stationary front?
What type of wind shift will you expect to find when encountering a stationary front?
Answer: 180° wind shift since surface winds tend to blow parallel on both sides of the front
With a warm front, does weather occur ahead of or after a surface front?
With a warm front, does weather occur ahead of or after a surface front?
Answer: Weather occurs ahead of a surface front
What are possible aviation hazards associated with a squall line?
What are possible aviation hazards associated with a squall line?
a. Turbulence
b. Icing
c. Hail
d. Lightning
e. Wind shear and microburst
f. Tornadoes
What are the characteristics of a squall line?
What are the characteristics of a squall line?
a. Line of severe thunderstorms
b. Forms 50-300 miles ahead of a cold front
c. Will sometimes form without a cold front
d. Contains severe hazards to aviation
A line of severe thunderstorms is known as a(n) ______.
A line of severe thunderstorms is known as a(n) ______.
Answer: squall line
How will the winds shift during a cold front passage?
How will the winds shift during a cold front passage?
Answer: From the Southwest to the Northwest
Cold fronts are caused by overtaking cold air being more ______ than warm air.
Cold fronts are caused by overtaking cold air being more ______ than warm air.
Answer: dense
What parameters of an air mass are generally uniform when measured across a horizontal plane?
What parameters of an air mass are generally uniform when measured across a horizontal plane?
Answer: Temperature and moisture
What properties are used to locate and classify fronts?
What properties are used to locate and classify fronts?
a. Temperature
b. Dew point
c. Pressure
d. Wind
What is an air mass?
What is an air mass?
Answer: A large body of air that has essentially uniform temperature and moisture conditions in a horizontal plane
On a clear day, the radiation received from the sun will most likely produce ______ lifting.
On a clear day, the radiation received from the sun will most likely produce ______ lifting.
Answer: thermal
What are the three conditions of atmospheric stability?
What are the three conditions of atmospheric stability?
a. Stable air
b. Neutrally Stable air
c. Unstable air
What are the methods of lifting?
What are the methods of lifting?
a. Convergence
b. Frontal
c. Thermal
d. Orographic
______ clouds produce violent/heavy steady precipitation.
______ clouds produce violent/heavy steady precipitation.
Answer: Nimbostratus
What are the three states of moisture?
What are the three states of moisture?
a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Gas
A narrow band of strong winds found below the tropopause is called ______.
A narrow band of strong winds found below the tropopause is called ______.
Answer: jet stream
High pressure results from ______ air.
High pressure results from ______ air.
Answer: descending
A strong pressure gradient force means a ______ wind speed.
A strong pressure gradient force means a ______ wind speed.
Answer: faster
True or false? The wind direction around a high is counterclockwise.
True or false? The wind direction around a high is counterclockwise.
Answer: False. The wind around a high is clockwise.
A single barb on a station model indicates ______ knots of wind.
A single barb on a station model indicates ______ knots of wind.
Answer: 10
With a pressure change of 1.0-Hg, how many feet will the altimeter reading change?
With a pressure change of 1.0-Hg, how many feet will the altimeter reading change?
Answer: 1000 feet
If the air is warmer than the standard atmosphere, the aircraft will be ______ than the altimeter indicates.
If the air is warmer than the standard atmosphere, the aircraft will be ______ than the altimeter indicates.
Answer: higher
The altimeter is calibrated for a ______ lapse rate.
The altimeter is calibrated for a ______ lapse rate.
Answer: standard
The altimeter setting is corrected for ______.
The altimeter setting is corrected for ______.
Answer: sea level pressure (SLP)
A constant temperature with increasing altitude is an example of a ______ lapse rate.
A constant temperature with increasing altitude is an example of a ______ lapse rate.
Answer: isothermal
True or false? Atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
True or false? Atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
Answer: False. Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude.
What are the typical flight conditions in the stratosphere?
What are the typical flight conditions in the stratosphere?
a. Constant cold temperature
b. Very little turbulence
c. Almost no weather
d. Excellent visibility
True or false? All aircraft can fly in the stratosphere.
True or false? All aircraft can fly in the stratosphere.
Answer: False. Very few aircraft can fly in the stratosphere.
An abrupt change in the rate of temperature decrease with increasing altitude can be found in the ______ layer.
An abrupt change in the rate of temperature decrease with increasing altitude can be found in the ______ layer.
Answer: tropopause
A decrease in temperature with increasing altitude indicates a ______ lapse rate.
A decrease in temperature with increasing altitude indicates a ______ lapse rate.
Answer: standard
When using an air turbine starter, do you still need electricity?
When using an air turbine starter, do you still need electricity?
Answer: Yes, for ignition.
Describe two types of igniters.
Describe two types of igniters.
Answer:
Annular gap - protrudes into burner can.
Constrained gap - outside can.
Name two types of starters.
Name two types of starters.
Answer: DC electrical and AIr Turbine.
Which type of abnormal start is most dangerous?
Which type of abnormal start is most dangerous?
Answer: Wet start
What are the indications of the four types of abnormal starts?
What are the indications of the four types of abnormal starts?
Answer:
False start - ITT normal, RPM stabilizes below normal.
Wet start - fuel flows but no light off.
Hot start - ITT above normal.
Hung start - ITT above normal, RPM below normal.
What is the purpose of a starter?
What is the purpose of a starter?
Answer: To accelerate the engine until the turbine makes enough power to accelerate the engine on its own.
What position is the breather pressurizing valve in if you're sitting on the deck?
What position is the breather pressurizing valve in if you're sitting on the deck?
Answer: Open
What has an aneroid operated spring and bellows valve?
What has an aneroid operated spring and bellows valve?
Answer: The breather pressurizing system; it sets the system to sea level pressure.
What does the oil temperature regulating valve do?
What does the oil temperature regulating valve do?
Answer: Directs the flow of return oil into the fuel-oil heat exchanger to allow heating of fuel to occur. When no heat is needed, the valve stays closed and redirects the oil directly to the oil tank.
What does a magnetic chip detector do?
What does a magnetic chip detector do?
Answer: Detects metal fragments in the scavenge oil path downstream of accessory gear box. Presence of metal chips indicate that gears in the accessory gear box are coming apart.
What diverts oil back to the oil pump inlet (foot stomp) if safe operating pressures are exceeded?
What diverts oil back to the oil pump inlet (foot stomp) if safe operating pressures are exceeded?
Answer: The oil pressure relief valve.
What is the purpose of an oil pump?
What is the purpose of an oil pump?
Answer: Supplies oil under pressure to the parts of the engine that require lubrication.
What is inside the oil tank to feed oil regardless of attitude?
What is inside the oil tank to feed oil regardless of attitude?
Answer: Swivel assembly uses gravity (foot stomp) to pivot and supply oil regardless of maneuvers.
What do oil tanks provide?
What do oil tanks provide?
Answer: Tanks store system oil supply, provide space for foaming/expansion, and vent excess pressure
What is a squeeze film?
What is a squeeze film?
Answer: A very thin layer of lubricant that prevents metal-on-metal contact
Define viscosity.
Define viscosity.
Answer: A measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. For liquids, it is inversely related to temperature.
What are the time limits for rated thrust?
What are the time limits for rated thrust?
Answer:
Normal - no limit.
Military - 30 minutes.
Combat/afterburner no limit.
What supplies fuel to the afterburner?
What supplies fuel to the afterburner?
Answer: Afterburner FCU meters fuel received from the engine-driven fuel pump via the Transfer Valve in the main FCU.
What is the basic purpose of the pressurizing and dump valve?
What is the basic purpose of the pressurizing and dump valve?
Answer: To drain the combustion manifold upon engine shutdown and to adjust fuel flow during engine starts. It is closed when the engine starts.
What is the purpose of the fuel-oil heat exchanger?
What is the purpose of the fuel-oil heat exchanger?
Answer: Preheats metered fuel and removes ice crystals before they enter the manifold. It increases fuel's volatility.
What does the fuel flow gauge/fuel flow meter do?
What does the fuel flow gauge/fuel flow meter do?
Answer: Located between FCU and fuel-oil heat exchanger, it measures fuel flow rate from the FCU in pounds per hour.
What is the fuel pressure gauge and where is it located?
What is the fuel pressure gauge and where is it located?
Answer: The fuel pressure gauge is a pressure sensor at the outlet of the boost pump. A drop in pressure may indicate a failed boost pump or an absence of fuel which could lead to cavitation.
What is a boost pump and where is it located?
What is a boost pump and where is it located?
Answer: An electric pump submerged in the fuel tank that ensures an adequate supply of vapor free fuel to the engine-driven fuel pump.
What must fuel system designers consider when designing a fuel system?
What must fuel system designers consider when designing a fuel system?
Answer: High rates of fuel flow (foot stomp), low atmospheric pressure, piping system complexity, weight and size constraints, cold weather starts.
What are the flash points for JP-5 and JP-8?
What are the flash points for JP-5 and JP-8?
Answer: JP-5 Flash point: 140 degrees Fahrenheit. JP-5 is used aboard ship because of its higher flash point.
JP-8 Flash point: 100 degrees Fahrenheit.
What is a flash point?
What is a flash point?
Answer: The lowest temperature that allows for fuel-air mixture to form that ignites with momentary flame application.
What is an electrical distribution network? What are the types?
What is an electrical distribution network? What are the types?
Answer: A bus is a common distribution point for electricity. 4 types: Essential - safety of flight. Primary - mission related. Secondary or monitor - convenience circuits. Starter - starts the engine.
What are sources of DC power?
What are sources of DC power?
Answer: Battery, transformer-rectifier, DC generator.
What is a transformer-rectifier?
What is a transformer-rectifier?
Answer: An electrical device that transforms AC to DC.
What is an inverter?
What is an inverter?
Answer: An electromechanical device that transforms DC to AC.
What is a constant speed drive? What is it's purpose?
What is a constant speed drive? What is it's purpose?
Answer: A hydro-mechanical linkage between the engine and the generator. It ensures a constant RPM input to generator regardless of engine RPM.
What kinds of power do we have on aircraft? Which can be produced by a generator?
What kinds of power do we have on aircraft? Which can be produced by a generator?
Answer: AC power and DC power. Both can be produced by a generator.
What is an actuating cylinder?
What is an actuating cylinder?
Answer: Converts fluid under pressure into linear or reciprocating mechanical motion (foot stomp).
What does a selector control valve do?
What does a selector control valve do?
Answer: Directs the flow of fluid into an actuating cylinder.
What do hydraulic fuses do?
What do hydraulic fuses do?
Answer: Hydraulic fuses are safety devices that detect ruptures, failed fittings, or other leak producing failures/damage. They prevent loss of fluid while allowing the rest of the system to remain in operation.
What is the purpose of the pressure relief valve?
What is the purpose of the pressure relief valve?
Answer: Prevents pressure from building to a point where seals might burst or damage may occur.
What does a check valve do?
What does a check valve do?
Answer: Allows one-way flow in a hydraulic system. On engine shutdown, works with accumulator to maintain system pressure (foot stomp)
What is the purpose of an accumulator?
What is the purpose of an accumulator?
Answer: Shock absorber for pressure surges in the system, and can supply pressure for one-time emergency use.
Name 2 pump types and their subunits.
Name 2 pump types and their subunits.
Answer: Hand pumps - emergency systems. Power pumps - mechanically or electrically powered at about 3,000 psi. Two types of power pumps: variable displacement, which regulates volume delivery in accordance with system demands, and constant displacement, which delivers constant fluid output for any rpm. Constant displacement pumps require a pressure regulator or unloader valve.
What does the hydraulic reservoir do?
What does the hydraulic reservoir do?
Answer: Serves as storage for hydraulic fluid. Overflow basin for excess fluid forced out of system by thermal expansion. Allows air bubbles to be purged, and separates some foreign matter from the system.
What are the types of hydraulic systems in an aircraft, and what do they do?
What are the types of hydraulic systems in an aircraft, and what do they do?
Answer: Power control system - operates flight controls. Utility system - operates everything else, and is a backup to flight controls.
What is Pascal's Law?
What is Pascal's Law?
Answer: Pressure applied to a confined liquid is transmitted equally in all directions without loss of pressure and acts with equal force on equal surfaces.
What is the purpose of hydraulics?
What is the purpose of hydraulics?
Answer: To multiply force and to provide extra power and a mechanical advantage in various components .
How much thrust does the turboshaft exhaust create?
How much thrust does the turboshaft exhaust create?
Answer: A negligible amount of thrust.
What is the torque meter assembly?
What is the torque meter assembly?
Answer: The shaft that connects the gas generator to the Reduction gear box. Two parts: Torque shaft - inner, coupled to the compressor (or free power turbine), experiences torsional load. Reference shaft - outer, rigidly connected only at one end, doesn't carry a load. The difference in twisting between the torque shaft and reference shaft is used to measure torque.
Why is low RPM desirable for the prop?
Why is low RPM desirable for the prop?
Answer: Prevents blade tips from going supersonic
How does a gas generator turn a propeller?
How does a gas generator turn a propeller?
Answer: With a reduction gear box (RGB) that converts high RPM low torque from the gas generator into low RPM high torque required from propeller operation.
What controls propeller pitch?
What controls propeller pitch?
Answer: Dome.
What are the three parts of the propeller assembly?
What are the three parts of the propeller assembly?
Answer: Blades, hub, dome.
How much thrust does a turboprop produce?
How much thrust does a turboprop produce?
Answer: 90% thrust from prop and 10% thrust from exhaust. Thrust is produced by a smaller amount of acceleration to a large mass of air.
Why are fans inefficient at high altitudes?
Why are fans inefficient at high altitudes?
Answer: Lower density at high altitudes means the fan is not accelerating as much air (loss of thrust)
Why are turbofans more fuel efficient?
Why are turbofans more fuel efficient?
Answer: Bypass air means less air goes through the gas generator, thus less fuel is added to the air to burn.
How does a jet produce thrust?
How does a jet produce thrust?
Answer: By highly accelerating a small mass of air through the engine.
What is Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption (TSFC)?
What is Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption (TSFC)?
Answer: TSFC is the amount of fuel needed to produce one pound of thrust.
How do you make a turbojet engine?
How do you make a turbojet engine?
Answer: Add an inlet and exhaust section to the basic gas generator
What are some design features that help prevent compressor stalls?
What are some design features that help prevent compressor stalls?
Answer: Variable inlet guide vanes, dual spool compressor design, interstage bleed air, variable exhause nozzle.
How should the pilot fly to avoid compressor stalls?
How should the pilot fly to avoid compressor stalls?
Answer: Avoid abrupt PCL changes and rapid attitude changes. Fly no less than airspeed minimums at all times.
What are some mechanical malfunctions that can cause compressor stalls?
What are some mechanical malfunctions that can cause compressor stalls?
Answer: Variable inlet guide vane failure, FCU failure, FOD, variable exhaust nozzle failure.
What are the indications of a compressor stall?
What are the indications of a compressor stall?
Answer: Mild pulsations, loud noises/bangs, vibrations. RPM decay, and/or ITT rises without change in PCL, torquemeter wavers.
How do you get relative wind entering a gas generator?
How do you get relative wind entering a gas generator?
Answer: Components of relative wind are compressor RPM and inlet airflow vectors. Decreasing inlet air component or increasing RPM component increases AOA of the compressor blades.
What are the components of the afterburner and what do they do?
What are the components of the afterburner and what do they do?
Answer: Four components: Spray bars, Flame holders, Screech liner, and Variable Exhaust Nozzle. Spray bars inject fuel into the afterburner; flame holders create turbulent eddies to mix fuel and air. The Screech liner is a shock absorber that prevents vibrations and turbulence, and the variable exhaust nozzle increases air's exit velocity.
How does afterburner operation affect thrust and fuel consumption?
How does afterburner operation affect thrust and fuel consumption?
Answer: Max Thrust available increases 50%, while fuel consumption increases 300%.
What engine types incorporate afterburners?
What engine types incorporate afterburners?
Answer: Turbojets and Turbofans
What is the purpose of exhaust?
What is the purpose of exhaust?
Answer: To direct the flow of hot gases rearward to cause a high exit velocity to the gases while preventing turbulence.
What is creep? What method is used to prevent it?
What is creep? What method is used to prevent it?
Answer: Creep is deformation of turbine blades due to overheating. It is accounted for by the "Fir Tree" attachment method.
What does the turbine do and how is its energy distributed?
What does the turbine do and how is its energy distributed?
Answer: 75% of energy produced by the turbine drives the compressor and accessories. The remaining 25% of energy produced is used for thrust.
What are the disadvantages of an annular combustion chamber?
What are the disadvantages of an annular combustion chamber?
Answer: Disadvantages: Replacement or maintenance requires complete engine overhaul.
What are the advantages of an annular combustion chamber?
What are the advantages of an annular combustion chamber?
Answer: Advantages: Uniform heat distribution on face of turbine, better use of space.
What are some disadvantages of a can combustion chamber?
What are some disadvantages of a can combustion chamber?
Answer: Disadvantages: Poor use of space in chamber, greater pressure loss, and uneven heating of the turbine; failure of one can lead to turbine damage due to cold spots.
What are some advantages of a can combustion chamber?
What are some advantages of a can combustion chamber?
Answer: Advantages: Strength, durability, Ease of maintenance.
What happens with air entering the combustion chamber/burner?
What happens with air entering the combustion chamber/burner?
Answer: 25% of air is primary air, and is mixed with fuel for combustion. 75% of air is secondary air, and flows around the chamber for cooling, flame control, and to be available for afterburners.
In a turboprop engine with a dual-spool axial compressor design, which turbine drives the propeller?
In a turboprop engine with a dual-spool axial compressor design, which turbine drives the propeller?
Answer: The Low Pressure Turbine.
Why is a dual-spool compressor design used?
Why is a dual-spool compressor design used?
Answer: Allows for greater pressure buildup, is easier to start, and provides compressor stability which helps prevent compressor stalls.
Describe a dual-spool axial flow compressor.
Describe a dual-spool axial flow compressor.
Answer: The compressor is divided into two independent rotor spools, each driven by their own turbine and drive shaft. Order from forward to act is low pressure compressor, high pressure compressor, high pressure turbine, low pressure turbine.
What is the purpose of the compressor?
What is the purpose of the compressor?
Answer: To provide high pressure air free of turbulence to send to the burners for max efficiency. As air travels through the compressor, it decreases velocity and increases pressure and temperature.
What is the centrifugal flow compressor diffuser passage shape?
What is the centrifugal flow compressor diffuser passage shape?
Answer: It is divergent in order to increase pressure of air being fed to the burner. All airflow within the engine is subsonic.
What type of inlet is designed for aircraft operation in both subsonic and supersonic flight regimes? How does it work?
What type of inlet is designed for aircraft operation in both subsonic and supersonic flight regimes? How does it work?
Answer: The Variable Geometry Inlet Duct uses mechanical devices such as wedges, ramps, or cones to automatically (no pilot input required) change inlet shape as aircraft speed varies between subsonic and supersonic.
What does a tachometer measure, and what engines use one?
What does a tachometer measure, and what engines use one?
Answer: A tachometer measures rpm, and all gas turbine engines use one.
What does a torque meter measure, and what types of engines have one?
What does a torque meter measure, and what types of engines have one?
Answer: A torque meter indicates shaft horsepower, which is power available. Turboprops and Turboshafts have torquemeters.
What types of engines have Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) gauges and what do they measure?
What types of engines have Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) gauges and what do they measure?
Answer: Turbojets and turbofans have Engine Pressure Ratio Gauges. This type of gauge indicates the pressure ratio between inlet airflow and exhaust airflow.
What are some factors that improve thrust?
What are some factors that improve thrust?
Answer: High density, high pressure, low altitude, low temperature, ram effect, and high engine RPM.
When is gross thrust equal to net thrust?
When is gross thrust equal to net thrust?
Answer: On a standard day when velocity equals zero.
What is net thrust?
What is net thrust?
Answer: Net thrust is thrust that corrects for the effect of inlet airflow velocity.
What is gross thrust?
What is gross thrust?
Answer: Gross thrust is the measurement of thrust due solely to velocity of exhaust gases; the engine must be stationary on the ground and requires standard day conditions.
What happens during the Brayton cycle and when does each action occur?
What happens during the Brayton cycle and when does each action occur?
Answer: Intake, Compression, Combustion, Exhaust ("suck, squeeze, bang, blow"). All stages occur simultaneously in the Brayton cycle.
Describe what a diffuser always does.
Describe what a diffuser always does.
Answer: A diffuser always increases pressure and decreases velocity.
Describe what a nozzle always does.
Describe what a nozzle always does.
Answer: A nozzle always increases velocity and decreases pressure.
What happens with air flow in a supersonic diffuser?
What happens with air flow in a supersonic diffuser?
Answer: A supersonic diffuser has a convergent shape - pressure increases, velocity decreases.
What happens with air flow in a supersonic nozzle?
What happens with air flow in a supersonic nozzle?
Answer: A supersonic nozzle has a divergent shape - velocity increases, pressure decreases.
What happens with air flow in a subsonic diffuser?
What happens with air flow in a subsonic diffuser?
Answer: A subsonic diffuser has a divergent shape - pressure increases, velocity decreases.
What happens with air flow in a subsonic nozzle?
What happens with air flow in a subsonic nozzle?
Answer: A subsonic nozzle has a convergent shape - velocity increases, pressure decreases.
What does Bernoulli's Theorem state?
What does Bernoulli's Theorem state?
Answer: As any incompressible fluid passes through a convergent opening, it's velocity increases and pressure decreases.
What happens to Total Pressure as Pressure and Velocity vary in a closed system?
What happens to Total Pressure as Pressure and Velocity vary in a closed system?
Answer: Total Pressure stays constant (Total pressure is the sum of Pressure and Velocity; in a closed system, if pressure increases, velocity must decrease to keep Total Pressure constant and vice versa)
What is dynamic pressure?
What is dynamic pressure?
Answer: The Kinetic Energy of fluid molecules in motion. In engines, Dynamic Pressure "equals" Velocity
A retailer decides to reduce the price of a sport coat that normally costs $98. The reduction in price is $3. The storeowner believes that the reduction will catch the eye of the value shopper. If the sport coat does not sell, the retailer might wish to consider which of the following before making another price change?
A retailer decides to reduce the price of a sport coat that normally costs $98. The reduction in price is $3. The storeowner believes that the reduction will catch the eye of the value shopper. If the sport coat does not sell, the retailer might wish to consider which of the following before making another price change?
A) subliminal perception
B) the figure-ground principle
C) the golden triangle
D) Weber's law
Answer: D
Mary Nabholz travels the same way to work every day. She notices advertisements in store windows when the ads first go up. However, after a few days, Mary no longer pays any attention to these ads because they have become familiar. Which of the following personal selection factors is affecting Mary Nabholz's response to the ads?
Mary Nabholz travels the same way to work every day. She notices advertisements in store windows when the ads first go up. However, after a few days, Mary no longer pays any attention to these ads because they have become familiar. Which of the following personal selection factors is affecting Mary Nabholz's response to the ads?
A) perceptual vigilance
B) perceptual defense
C) contrast
D) adaptation
Answer: D
A billboard is positioned beside a busy highway. However, the merchant that has purchased the billboard complains that no response is being generated by his advertising message. Upon closer inspection, the billboard company determines that the typeface used is too small to be effectively read by a motorist going 60+ mph on the highway. Which of the following sensory thresholds would be most appropriate to explain the failure of this advertisement to connect with motorists?
A billboard is positioned beside a busy highway. However, the merchant that has purchased the billboard complains that no response is being generated by his advertising message. Upon closer inspection, the billboard company determines that the typeface used is too small to be effectively read by a motorist going 60+ mph on the highway. Which of the following sensory thresholds would be most appropriate to explain the failure of this advertisement to connect with motorists?
A) the intensity threshold
B) the differential threshold
C) the absolute threshold
D) the relative threshold
Answer: C
Jason and Mark were talking in class, but so was everyone else. As they continued to discuss their day's adventures, it suddenly became clear to them that the teacher was staring at them. They didn't realize that the class had been called to order and what was once only one conversation among many was now disruptive. Jason apologized quickly, and the teacher resumed her normal activities. This is a good example of how a consumer's ability to detect a difference between two stimuli is ________.
Jason and Mark were talking in class, but so was everyone else. As they continued to discuss their day's adventures, it suddenly became clear to them that the teacher was staring at them. They didn't realize that the class had been called to order and what was once only one conversation among many was now disruptive. Jason apologized quickly, and the teacher resumed her normal activities. This is a good example of how a consumer's ability to detect a difference between two stimuli is ________.
A) absolute
B) negligible
C) relative
D) embedded
Answer: C
A common practice among advertisers is to create new relationships between objects and interpretants by inventing new connections between products and benefits. A classic example of this was equating Marlboro cigarettes with the American frontier spirit. Which of the following terms best describes this practice?
A common practice among advertisers is to create new relationships between objects and interpretants by inventing new connections between products and benefits. A classic example of this was equating Marlboro cigarettes with the American frontier spirit. Which of the following terms best describes this practice?
A) subliminal persuasion
B) figure-ground projection
C) semiotic relationships
D) consumer-modeling connections
Answer: C
The ________ for a brand guides how a company uses elements of the marketing mix to influence the consumer's interpretation of the brand's meaning in the marketplace relative to its competitors.
The ________ for a brand guides how a company uses elements of the marketing mix to influence the consumer's interpretation of the brand's meaning in the marketplace relative to its competitors.
A) positioning strategy
B) Gestalt psychology
C) sensory signature
D) priming strategy
Answer: A
Lifestyle, attributes, competitors, and quality are all dimensions marketers can use to carve out a brand's ________ in the marketplace.
Lifestyle, attributes, competitors, and quality are all dimensions marketers can use to carve out a brand's ________ in the marketplace.
A) sensory signature
B) position
C) priming
D) trade dress
Answer: B
Ben Perez is driving along a mountain road. In the distance, he sees a road crew working on a fallen tree that has blocked the highway. When Ben first sees the road crew, which of the following perceptual processes has been engaged?
Ben Perez is driving along a mountain road. In the distance, he sees a road crew working on a fallen tree that has blocked the highway. When Ben first sees the road crew, which of the following perceptual processes has been engaged?
A) exposure
B) attention
C) adaptation
D) interpretation
Answer: A
Nadia Ali loves the feel of her new sweater and the smell of her leather car seats on a crisp fall day. As she passes a billboard, she sees an ad for Baskin-Robbins ice cream and immediately does a U-turn into the shopping center where she knows the famous ice cream store is located. In the above example, Nadia is responding to ________.
Nadia Ali loves the feel of her new sweater and the smell of her leather car seats on a crisp fall day. As she passes a billboard, she sees an ad for Baskin-Robbins ice cream and immediately does a U-turn into the shopping center where she knows the famous ice cream store is located. In the above example, Nadia is responding to ________.
A) sensory inputs emanating from the external environment
B) sensory inputs emanating from the internal environment
C) emotional outputs
D) decision sequences dictated by sensory outputs
Answer: A
When a gas station blows "fresh coffee smell" around the gas pumps to tempt customers to come inside for a cup, the gas station is using a form of ________ marketing to influence customers.
When a gas station blows "fresh coffee smell" around the gas pumps to tempt customers to come inside for a cup, the gas station is using a form of ________ marketing to influence customers.
A) one-on-one
B) subliminal
C) differentiated
D) sensory
Answer: D
Which of the following refers to the meanings we assign to sensory stimuli?
Which of the following refers to the meanings we assign to sensory stimuli?
A) schema
B) semiotics
C) interpretation
D) perception
Answer: C
In the process of ________, certain properties of a stimulus evoke a schema.
In the process of ________, certain properties of a stimulus evoke a schema.
A) priming
B) differentiating
C) indexing
D) perceptual mapping
Answer: A
When we ________ products, we evaluate them using schemas we typically apply to classify people.
When we ________ products, we evaluate them using schemas we typically apply to classify people.
A) prime
B) filter
C) imprint
D) anthropomorphize
Answer: D
The field of ________ examines the correspondence between signs and symbols and their role in the assignment of meaning.
The field of ________ examines the correspondence between signs and symbols and their role in the assignment of meaning.
A) semiotics
B) psychophysics
C) Gestalt theory
D) hyperreality
Answer: A
From a semiotic perspective, every marketing message has three basic components. Which of those components is the sensory image that represents the intended meaning?
From a semiotic perspective, every marketing message has three basic components. Which of those components is the sensory image that represents the intended meaning?
A) the sign
B) the object
C) the interpretant
D) the structure
Answer: A
A(n) ________ is a sign that relates to a product by either conventional or agreed-on associations.
A(n) ________ is a sign that relates to a product by either conventional or agreed-on associations.
A) icon
B) index
C) symbol
D) schema
Answer: C
An individual may not process stimuli that are in some way threatening, or may distort the meaning of a stimulus to make it less threatening. This type of perceptual filter is called ________.
An individual may not process stimuli that are in some way threatening, or may distort the meaning of a stimulus to make it less threatening. This type of perceptual filter is called ________.
A) perceptual defense
B) perceptual vigilance
C) subliminal perception
D) adaptation
Answer: A
According to the exposure factor leading to adaptation, frequently encountered stimuli ________ as the rate of exposure increases.
According to the exposure factor leading to adaptation, frequently encountered stimuli ________ as the rate of exposure increases.
A) adapt
B) habituate
C) prime
D) overload
Answer: B
According to the ________ factor leading to adaptation, simple stimuli habituate because they do not require attention to detail.
According to the ________ factor leading to adaptation, simple stimuli habituate because they do not require attention to detail.
A) exposure
B) vigilance
C) discrimination
D) relevance
Answer: C
Size, color, position, and novelty are all strategies for creating which of the following?
Size, color, position, and novelty are all strategies for creating which of the following?
A) contrast
B) adaptation
C) vigilance
D) thresholds
Answer: A
________ refers to the extent to which processing activity is devoted to a particular stimulus.
________ refers to the extent to which processing activity is devoted to a particular stimulus.
A) Exposure
B) Perception
C) Attention
D) Sensation
Answer: C
The average adult is exposed to about 3,500 pieces of advertising information every single day, far more information than they can or are willing to process. Consumers who are exposed to more information than they can process are in a state of ________.
The average adult is exposed to about 3,500 pieces of advertising information every single day, far more information than they can or are willing to process. Consumers who are exposed to more information than they can process are in a state of ________.
A) advertising bombardment
B) sensory overload
C) sensory shifting
D) circuit overcapacity
Answer: B
Processing information from more than one medium at a time is known as ________.
Processing information from more than one medium at a time is known as ________.
A) multitasking
B) perceptual hyperactivity
C) perceptual chunking
D) interactive attention
Answer: A
Because the brain's capacity to process information is limited, consumers are very selective about what they pay attention to and tend to select stimuli that relate to their current needs. This type of perceptual filter is called ________.
Because the brain's capacity to process information is limited, consumers are very selective about what they pay attention to and tend to select stimuli that relate to their current needs. This type of perceptual filter is called ________.
A) perceptual defense
B) perceptual vigilance
C) subliminal perception
D) adaptation
Answer: B
The minimum difference that can be detected between two stimuli is known as the ________.
The minimum difference that can be detected between two stimuli is known as the ________.
A) "bare" minimum
B) gradual differentiation
C) j.n.d. (just noticeable difference)
D) graded difference
Answer: C
The ________ threshold refers to the ability of a sensory system to detect changes between two stimuli.
The ________ threshold refers to the ability of a sensory system to detect changes between two stimuli.
A) absolute
B) differential
C) intensity
D) relative
Answer: B
According to Weber's Law, the ________ the initial stimulus, the greater a change must be for people to notice the change.
According to Weber's Law, the ________ the initial stimulus, the greater a change must be for people to notice the change.
A) more common
B) stronger
C) weaker
D) more unusual
Answer: B
________ occurs when a stimulus is below the level of an individual's awareness.
________ occurs when a stimulus is below the level of an individual's awareness.
A) Absolute threshold
B) Differential threshold
C) Subliminal perception
D) Perceptual selection
Answer: C
Some color combinations come to be so strongly associated with a corporation that they become known as the company's ________.
Some color combinations come to be so strongly associated with a corporation that they become known as the company's ________.
A) position
B) signature
C) trade dress
D) schema
Answer: C
Which of the following refers to the process by which the way a word sounds influences the listener's assumptions about what the word describes?
Which of the following refers to the process by which the way a word sounds influences the listener's assumptions about what the word describes?
A) sound symbolism
B) audio watermarking
C) semiotics
D) the principle of similarity
Answer: A
When Jane shops, she must feel the fabric of any potential clothing buy before she even bothers to see what the design is. She has a high need to touch. Which sense system is important to Jane in her clothing shopping?
When Jane shops, she must feel the fabric of any potential clothing buy before she even bothers to see what the design is. She has a high need to touch. Which sense system is important to Jane in her clothing shopping?
A) visual
B) auditory
C) haptic
D) liminal
Answer: C
When a stimulus comes within the range of someone's sensory receptors, ________ occurs.
When a stimulus comes within the range of someone's sensory receptors, ________ occurs.
A) just noticeable difference (j.n.d.)
B) retention
C) subliminal suggestion
D) exposure
Answer: D
The ________ threshold refers to the minimum amount of stimulation that can be detected on a sensory channel.
The ________ threshold refers to the minimum amount of stimulation that can be detected on a sensory channel.
A) absolute
B) differential
C) intensity
D) relative
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT one of the three stages of the process of perception?
Which of the following is NOT one of the three stages of the process of perception?
A) interpretation
B) adaptation
C) attention
D) exposure
Answer: B
As manufacturing costs decrease and the amount of products that people accumulate goes up, consumers increasingly want to buy things that will provide ________ value.
As manufacturing costs decrease and the amount of products that people accumulate goes up, consumers increasingly want to buy things that will provide ________ value.
A) hedonic
B) Gestalt
C) embedded
D) referent
Answer: A
The sensory characteristic of a product that sticks with consumers, helping them to remember the product in a unique way, is called the ________.
The sensory characteristic of a product that sticks with consumers, helping them to remember the product in a unique way, is called the ________.
A) phoneme
B) schema
C) sensory signature
D) interpretant
Answer: C
The immediate response by our eyes, nose, mouth, or fingers to such basic stimuli as light, color, sound, odor, and texture is called ________.
The immediate response by our eyes, nose, mouth, or fingers to such basic stimuli as light, color, sound, odor, and texture is called ________.
A) reception
B) awareness
C) perception
D) sensation
Answer: D
The process by which people select, organize, and interpret sensory information is called ________.
The process by which people select, organize, and interpret sensory information is called ________.
A) reception
B) awareness
C) perception
D) sensation
Answer: C
A ________ is an idea or product that enters the consciousness of people over time.
A ________ is an idea or product that enters the consciousness of people over time.
A) meme
B) belief
C) norm
D) value
Answer: A
M-PESA, a mobile-phone-based money transfer service, was initially designed to meet the needs of developing nations before being adapted elsewhere. M-PESA is an example of a ________ innovation.
M-PESA, a mobile-phone-based money transfer service, was initially designed to meet the needs of developing nations before being adapted elsewhere. M-PESA is an example of a ________ innovation.
A) complex
B) reverse
C) social
D) meme
Answer: B
The tipping point most likely occurs just towards the end of the adoption stage for the ________.
The tipping point most likely occurs just towards the end of the adoption stage for the ________.
A) innovators
B) early adopters
C) early majority
D) mass connectors
Answer: B
Which promotional strategy uses unconventional means, such as street theater, to encourage WOM about products?
Which promotional strategy uses unconventional means, such as street theater, to encourage WOM about products?
A) influence networking
B) guerilla marketing
C) viral marketing
D) POP displays
Answer: B
A hair cream remover meant to replace the razor was marketed to men but failed miserably. Which determinant of diffusion was most likely to blame?
A hair cream remover meant to replace the razor was marketed to men but failed miserably. Which determinant of diffusion was most likely to blame?
A) compatibility
B) trialability
C) relative advantage
D) observability
Answer: A
When online ads go viral, they may influence adoption of the product being promoted due to the heightened ________.
When online ads go viral, they may influence adoption of the product being promoted due to the heightened ________.
A) complexity
B) observability
C) compatibility
D) trialability
Answer: B
When marketers embed brand messages in social games, they are seeking to influence consumer behavior through the ________ determinant of diffusion.
When marketers embed brand messages in social games, they are seeking to influence consumer behavior through the ________ determinant of diffusion.
A) social proof
B) observability
C) compatibility
D) trialability
Answer: B
Organizing music using Spotify or another similar application enables users to listen to music virtually anywhere and across multiple devices. This is an example of the ________ determinant of diffusion.
Organizing music using Spotify or another similar application enables users to listen to music virtually anywhere and across multiple devices. This is an example of the ________ determinant of diffusion.
A) relative advantage
B) observability
C) compatibility
D) trialability
Answer: A
Ashley, an upper-income consumer with an eye for fashion, loves getting a steal at the Dollar Store. She is engaging in ________.
Ashley, an upper-income consumer with an eye for fashion, loves getting a steal at the Dollar Store. She is engaging in ________.
A) social proof
B) social shopping
C) folksonomy
D) parody display
Answer: D
80% of brand mentions online are made by just 6.2% of social media users. Forrester Research calls these influencers ________.
80% of brand mentions online are made by just 6.2% of social media users. Forrester Research calls these influencers ________.
A) salespeople
B) power users
C) mass connectors
D) mass networker
Answer: C
Jane is searching for the latest fashion in jeans at the Levi's Friends Store. She connects online using Facebook, and invites Kelsey to shop with her inside the online store. Jane is participating in a form of e-commerce known as ________.
Jane is searching for the latest fashion in jeans at the Levi's Friends Store. She connects online using Facebook, and invites Kelsey to shop with her inside the online store. Jane is participating in a form of e-commerce known as ________.
A) groupon
B) social shopping
C) pure play
D) Facebook commerce
Answer: B
Which term refers to a multiplayer, competitive, goal-oriented activity with defined rules of engagement and online connectivity among a community of players?
Which term refers to a multiplayer, competitive, goal-oriented activity with defined rules of engagement and online connectivity among a community of players?
A) transactional advertising
B) viral marketing
C) social game
D) milieu
Answer: C
What term refers to the hardware system upon which a social game is played?
What term refers to the hardware system upon which a social game is played?
A) genre
B) platform
C) mode
D) milieu
Answer: B
On Flickr, shared photos represent the ________ which is the basis for the network.
On Flickr, shared photos represent the ________ which is the basis for the network.
A) tie strength
B) social object
C) node
D) graph
Answer: B
Social networks tend to be more successful if they create a sensation that participants are in a tangible place. This is known as ________.
Social networks tend to be more successful if they create a sensation that participants are in a tangible place. This is known as ________.
A) presence
B) social object
C) atmospherics
D) framing
Answer: A
Word-of-mouth communication in the form of brand-specific mentions in social media are called ________.
Word-of-mouth communication in the form of brand-specific mentions in social media are called ________.
A) influence cascades
B) influence impressions
C) social objects
D) generalized opinion leadership
Answer: B
Tracy loves shopping with her personal shopper, Carrie, at Nordstrom's. Carrie is a ________.
Tracy loves shopping with her personal shopper, Carrie, at Nordstrom's. Carrie is a ________.
A) market maven
B) opinion leader
C) surrogate consumer
D) fashionista
Answer: C
Which job role best fits the definition of a surrogate consumer?
Which job role best fits the definition of a surrogate consumer?
A) physician
B) interior decorator
C) physical trainer
D) psychologist
Answer: B
Shoppers on Amazon.com can search for products using words like "must read" and "girl power." These categorizations are based on a ________.
Shoppers on Amazon.com can search for products using words like "must read" and "girl power." These categorizations are based on a ________.
A) folksonomy
B) taxonomy
C) genre
D) milieu
Answer: A
Members of a social network are called ________.
Members of a social network are called ________.
A) followers
B) friends
C) nodes
D) modules
Answer: C
Opinion leaders are more influential when they are ________.
Opinion leaders are more influential when they are ________.
A) much different than the people being influenced
B) quite similar to the people being influenced
C) older than the average consumer
D) wealthier than most consumers
Answer: B
Experts that are specialized in a limited number of topics are called ________.
Experts that are specialized in a limited number of topics are called ________.
A) market mavens
B) monomorphic
C) polymorphic
D) generalized
Answer: B
Experts who are knowledgeable in several fields are called ________.
Experts who are knowledgeable in several fields are called ________.
A) market mavens
B) monomorphic
C) polymorphic
D) generalized
Answer: C
On Big Bang Theory, Sheldon Cooper plays a ________ expert with knowledge in topics ranging from flag history to string theory.
On Big Bang Theory, Sheldon Cooper plays a ________ expert with knowledge in topics ranging from flag history to string theory.
A) market mavens
B) monomorphic
C) polymorphic
D) generalized
Answer: C
Opinion leaders who are also early purchasers of a product are called ________.
Opinion leaders who are also early purchasers of a product are called ________.
A) early adopters
B) innovative communicators
C) newbies
D) generalized opinion leaders
Answer: B
Jenny just posted a tweet on Twitter about how much she loves a new movie. Jenny has potentially influenced others with ________.
Jenny just posted a tweet on Twitter about how much she loves a new movie. Jenny has potentially influenced others with ________.
A) word-of-mouth
B) C2C marketing
C) trickle-across promotion
D) viral marketing
Answer: A
Word-of-mouth communication about products is thought to be influential because it is perceived as ________.
Word-of-mouth communication about products is thought to be influential because it is perceived as ________.
A) being more reliable
B) coming from a trustworthy source
C) having more social pressure to conform associated with it
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Which term refers to a piece of information triggering a sequence of interactions?
Which term refers to a piece of information triggering a sequence of interactions?
A) information cascade
B) media multiplexity
C) information networking
D) influence impression
Answer: A
James is known as a techie. He is the go-to source for his friends when it comes to recommendations on the best in the latest electronics. James is most likely a(n) ________.
James is known as a techie. He is the go-to source for his friends when it comes to recommendations on the best in the latest electronics. James is most likely a(n) ________.
A) fashionista
B) market maven
C) opinion leader
D) referent
Answer: C
Fallon was the son of a very wealthy banker from Connecticut. The first time Fallon saw an artist on MTV wearing a polished bicycle chain around his neck, he knew he had to get an item like that for himself. Fallon's behavior is best explained by the ________ theory of fashion.
Fallon was the son of a very wealthy banker from Connecticut. The first time Fallon saw an artist on MTV wearing a polished bicycle chain around his neck, he knew he had to get an item like that for himself. Fallon's behavior is best explained by the ________ theory of fashion.
A) trickle-down
B) trickle-up
C) trickle-across
D) prestige-exclusivity
Answer: B
When product information is transmitted from individual to individual it is best known as ________.
When product information is transmitted from individual to individual it is best known as ________.
A) word-of-mouth
B) C2C
C) trickle-across
D) viral marketing
Answer: A
Fashion refers to ________.
Fashion refers to ________.
A) the process of social diffusion by which a new style is adopted by some consumer groups
B) a particular combination of attributes within a style, trend, or fad
C) being positively evaluated by some reference group
D) rejecting the norm and pushing for newness
Answer: B
A ________ is a very short-lived fashion.
A ________ is a very short-lived fashion.
A) trend
B) fad
C) classic
D) style
Answer: B
People who supply online product reviews are called ________.
People who supply online product reviews are called ________.
A) media recipients
B) media broadcasters
C) brand advocates
D) folksonomists
Answer: C
In the diffusion of innovation process, which group is very slow to adopt new products and constitutes one-sixth of the population?
In the diffusion of innovation process, which group is very slow to adopt new products and constitutes one-sixth of the population?
A) innovators
B) early adopters
C) late adopters
D) laggards
Answer: D
A ________ innovation is a new product that creates major changes in the way we live.
A ________ innovation is a new product that creates major changes in the way we live.
A) globally continuous
B) continuous
C) discontinuous
D) dynamically continuous
Answer: C
Product information that is transmitted by individuals to individuals is called ________.
Product information that is transmitted by individuals to individuals is called ________.
A) independent analysis
B) product shuffle
C) reactance formation
D) word-of-mouth
Answer: D
In general, advertising is more effective when it ________ than when it ________.
In general, advertising is more effective when it ________ than when it ________.
A) tries to create new product preferences; reinforces our existing product preferences
B) reinforces our existing product preferences; tries to create new product preferences
C) relies upon word-of-mouth tactics; relies upon viral marketing tactics
D) relies upon viral marketing tactics; relies upon word-of-mouth tactics
Answer: B
Social networking is an integral part of what many call ________, which is characterized by interactive platforms that foster the creation of communities.
Social networking is an integral part of what many call ________, which is characterized by interactive platforms that foster the creation of communities.
A) the virtual world
B) the mega Web
C) the inner Web
D) Web 2.0
Answer: D
According to the ________ perspective, under the right circumstances a group of people is smarter than the smartest people within the group.
According to the ________ perspective, under the right circumstances a group of people is smarter than the smartest people within the group.
A) mere exposure phenomenon
B) wisdom of crowds
C) deindividuation
D) normative influence
Answer: B
Meagan is planning her wedding and wants everything to be just right, from the invitations and table settings to the ceremony and music selections. Because she feels overwhelmed by all of the information to sort through and the choices to make, she hires a wedding planner to make many of the decisions and purchases for her. Meagan's wedding planner is best described as a(n) ________.
Meagan is planning her wedding and wants everything to be just right, from the invitations and table settings to the ceremony and music selections. Because she feels overwhelmed by all of the information to sort through and the choices to make, she hires a wedding planner to make many of the decisions and purchases for her. Meagan's wedding planner is best described as a(n) ________.
A) innovative communicator
B) surrogate consumer
C) opinion seeker
D) key informant
Answer: B
A(n) ________ is a marketing intermediary retained by a consumer to guide what that consumer buys.
A(n) ________ is a marketing intermediary retained by a consumer to guide what that consumer buys.
A) market maven
B) opinion leader
C) power user
D) surrogate consumer
Answer: D
Several research methods are used to study reference groups and opinion leadership. ________ methods trace communication patterns among members of a group. These techniques allow researchers to systematically map out the interactions that take place among group members.
Several research methods are used to study reference groups and opinion leadership. ________ methods trace communication patterns among members of a group. These techniques allow researchers to systematically map out the interactions that take place among group members.
A) Momentum
B) Behavioral
C) Sociometric
D) Geodemographic
Answer: C
A sociometric network analysis is likely to study all of the following EXCEPT which one?
A sociometric network analysis is likely to study all of the following EXCEPT which one?
A) referral behavior
B) the use of surrogate consumers
C) the tie strength between members of a network
D) communication in social systems
Answer: B
The importance of weak ties in a social system is demonstrated by their ________.
The importance of weak ties in a social system is demonstrated by their ________.
A) bridging function
B) social contagion
C) momentum effect
D) diffusion of responsibility
Answer: A
In advertising terms, a(n) ________ refers to a view or exposure to an advertising message.
In advertising terms, a(n) ________ refers to a view or exposure to an advertising message.
A) node
B) impression
C) connection
D) reference
Answer: B
Which of the following statements most accurately defines homophily?
Which of the following statements most accurately defines homophily?
A) Homophily is the degree to which a pair of individuals is similar in terms of education, social status, and beliefs.
B) Homophily is the degree to which a pair of individuals is similar in terms of monetary wealth and lifestyle.
C) Homophily is the degree to which a pair of individuals is similar in terms of ethnicity.
D) Homophily is the degree to which a pair of individuals is similar in terms of sexual orientation.
Answer: A
Recent research on opinion leadership has called into question the traditional view that there are ________ opinion leaders.
Recent research on opinion leadership has called into question the traditional view that there are ________ opinion leaders.
A) heterophilous
B) generalized
C) polymorphic
D) monomorphic
Answer: B
The opinion leader referred to as a(n) ________ is actively involved in transmitting marketplace information of all types.
The opinion leader referred to as a(n) ________ is actively involved in transmitting marketplace information of all types.
A) surrogate consumer
B) innovator
C) monomorphic leader
D) market maven
Answer: D
A marketing manager who wants to identify opinion leaders for her product category should do which of the following?
A marketing manager who wants to identify opinion leaders for her product category should do which of the following?
A) She should find government officials who use the product.
B) She should find socially active persons who are very interested in the product category.
C) She should find intellectuals who can write academic papers about the product category.
D) She should look for people who rely on reward power to develop interest in a product.
Answer: B
Delia's is a clothing retailer that targets teenage girls. It runs coordinated promotions for its catalogs, Web site, and retail outlets. It uses the same models in its catalog and in its print ads as well as on its Web site. Delia's works to make sure its public relations activities as well as its sales promotions harmonize with its advertising in all venues. From this information, you can infer that Delia's is using ________.
Delia's is a clothing retailer that targets teenage girls. It runs coordinated promotions for its catalogs, Web site, and retail outlets. It uses the same models in its catalog and in its print ads as well as on its Web site. Delia's works to make sure its public relations activities as well as its sales promotions harmonize with its advertising in all venues. From this information, you can infer that Delia's is using ________.
a. buzz marketing
b. experiential marketing
c. integrated marketing communication
d. word-of-mouth marketing
e. database marketing
Answer: integrated marketing communication
A manufacturer of a variety of technological devices asked its marketing department to develop inexpensive methods of building and maintaining brand awareness and excitement. The marketing department then recruited consumers who were early adopters of technological devices to spread the word about the company's new products. This is an example of ________.
A manufacturer of a variety of technological devices asked its marketing department to develop inexpensive methods of building and maintaining brand awareness and excitement. The marketing department then recruited consumers who were early adopters of technological devices to spread the word about the company's new products. This is an example of ________.
a. public service activities
b. nonpersonal marketing
c. buzz marketing
d. sales promotion
e. direct marketing
Answer: buzz marketing
An e-mail from Amazon.com offers free shipping on your next purchase of more than $35. This is an example of ________.
An e-mail from Amazon.com offers free shipping on your next purchase of more than $35. This is an example of ________.
a. sales promotion
b. personal selling
c. public relations
d. an advertising objective
e. a push strategy
Answer: sales promotion
Which promotional tool is most effective in building up buyers' preferences, convictions, and, most importantly, actions?
Which promotional tool is most effective in building up buyers' preferences, convictions, and, most importantly, actions?
a. mass-market advertising
b. personal selling
c. segmented advertising
d. sales promotion
e. public relations
Answer: personal selling
"Buy it now" is the message of ________.
"Buy it now" is the message of ________.
a. personal selling
b. advertising
c. a nonpersonal communication channel
d. sales promotion
e. publicity
Answer: sales promotion
______ is very believable because news stories, features, sponsorships, and events seem more real and believable to readers than ads do.
______ is very believable because news stories, features, sponsorships, and events seem more real and believable to readers than ads do.
a. The competitive-parity method
b. Public relations
c. Personal communication
d. Nonpersonal communication
e. Personal selling
Answer: Public relations
Business-to-consumer companies are more likely to emphasize a ________ promotion strategy, while business-to-business companies are more likely to emphasize a ________ promotion strategy.
Business-to-consumer companies are more likely to emphasize a ________ promotion strategy, while business-to-business companies are more likely to emphasize a ________ promotion strategy.
a. pull; push
b. push; pull
c. pulse; pull
d. continuity; pulse
e. pulse; continuity
Answer: pull; push
In the introduction stage of the product life cycle, a combination of ________ is best for producing high awareness.
In the introduction stage of the product life cycle, a combination of ________ is best for producing high awareness.
a. indirect marketing and personal selling
b. advertising and public relations
c. public relations and personal selling
d. personal selling and direct marketing
e. direct marketing and sales promotion
Answer: advertising and public relations
A consumer is reading a magazine with an advertisement, but is distracted from reading the advertisement or its key points. This unplanned static or distortion during the communication process is called ________.
A consumer is reading a magazine with an advertisement, but is distracted from reading the advertisement or its key points. This unplanned static or distortion during the communication process is called ________.
a. noise
b. distraction
c. feedback
d. response
e. decoding
Answer: noise
In the AIDA model, the D stands for ________.
In the AIDA model, the D stands for ________.
a. demand
b. desire
c. data
d. do-it-yourself
e. decoding
Answer: desire
A marketer is making decisions about the headline, copy, illustration, and colors for a print ad. The marketer is making decisions about the ________.
A marketer is making decisions about the headline, copy, illustration, and colors for a print ad. The marketer is making decisions about the ________.
a. message structure
b. message content
c. message medium
d. message channel
e. message format
Answer: message format
Nonpersonal communication channels include major media, ________, and events.
Nonpersonal communication channels include major media, ________, and events.
a. sales calls
b. buzz marketing
c. atmospheres
d. word of mouth
e. e-mail
Answer: atmospheres
Today, marketers are moving toward viewing communications as managing the ________ over time.
Today, marketers are moving toward viewing communications as managing the ________ over time.
a. advertising agency
b. nonpersonal communication channels
c. word-of-mouth influence
d. customer relationship
e. product life cycle
Answer: customer relationship
Using integrated marketing communications, the communications process should start with ________.
Using integrated marketing communications, the communications process should start with ________.
a. an advertising strategy
b. the competitive-parity method
c. public relations
d. an audit of all potential customer touch points
e. publicity
Answer: an audit of all potential customer touch points
The communication channel a company uses to move its advertising messages from sender to receiver is called the ________.
The communication channel a company uses to move its advertising messages from sender to receiver is called the ________.
a. message
b. media
c. encoder
d. communicator
e. feedback loop
Answer: media
In the communication process, the reaction of the receiver after being exposed to a message is called the ________.
In the communication process, the reaction of the receiver after being exposed to a message is called the ________.
a. response
b. answer
c. noise
d. feedback
e. decoding
Answer: response
All of the following are reasons that marketers are losing confidence in television advertising EXCEPT which one?
All of the following are reasons that marketers are losing confidence in television advertising EXCEPT which one?
a. TV ad spending is rising at a slower rate than online ad spending.
b. TV and other mass media no longer capture the lion share of promotional budgets.
c. Many viewers are using video streaming or DVRs.
d. Mass media costs are rising.
e. TV audience size is on the decline.
Answer: TV and other mass media no longer capture the lion share of promotional budgets.
Companies often fail to integrate their various communications to consumers because ________.
Companies often fail to integrate their various communications to consumers because ________.
a. historically consumers have been able to distinguish between message sources
b. advertising departments are reluctant to work with public relations professionals
c. communications often come from different parts of the company
d. personal selling and sales promotion are in direct conflict
e. they have overemphasized the concept of brand contact
Answer: communications often come from different parts of the company
More companies are adopting the concept of ________, which carefully integrates and coordinates the company's many communication channels to deliver a clear, consistent, and compelling message about the organization and its brands.
More companies are adopting the concept of ________, which carefully integrates and coordinates the company's many communication channels to deliver a clear, consistent, and compelling message about the organization and its brands.
a. integrated marketing communications
b. integrated personal selling
c. integrated competitive methods
d. nonpersonal communication channels
e. buzz marketing
Answer: integrated marketing communications
Integrated marketing communications produces better communications ________ and greater ________ impact.
Integrated marketing communications produces better communications ________ and greater ________ impact.
a. consistency; sales
b. sales; consistency
c. marketing; competitive
d. variety; production
e. branding; quality
Answer: consistency; sales
Which of the following is NOT an example of a specialized and highly targeted media that an advertiser might use to reach smaller customer segments?
Which of the following is NOT an example of a specialized and highly targeted media that an advertiser might use to reach smaller customer segments?
a. cable television channels
b. e-mail
c. cell phone content
d. network television
e. online social networks
Answer: network television
Companies are doing less ________ and more ________ as a result of an explosion of more focused media that better match today's targeting strategies.
Companies are doing less ________ and more ________ as a result of an explosion of more focused media that better match today's targeting strategies.
a. marketing; media
b. media; sales
c. narrowcasting; broadcasting
d. broadcasting; narrowcasting
e. advertising; word-of-mouth
Answer: broadcasting; narrowcasting
Moving away from ________, marketers have been shifting toward highly focused marketing, spawning a new generation of more specialized and highly targeted communications efforts.
Moving away from ________, marketers have been shifting toward highly focused marketing, spawning a new generation of more specialized and highly targeted communications efforts.
a. mass marketing
b. advertising
c. direct marketing
d. pull strategies
e. push strategies
Answer: mass marketing
Which of the following is NOT a factor in the changes occurring in today's marketing communications?
Which of the following is NOT a factor in the changes occurring in today's marketing communications?
a. Mass markets have fragmented, and marketers are shifting away from mass marketing.
b. Improvements in communication technologies are changing how companies and customers communicate with each other.
c. Companies routinely invest millions of dollars in the mass media.
d. Mass media no longer capture the majority of promotional budgets.
e. Today's consumers are better informed about products and services.
Answer: Mass media no longer capture the majority of promotional budgets.
Which major promotion category makes use of catalogs, telephone marketing, kiosks, and the Internet?
Which major promotion category makes use of catalogs, telephone marketing, kiosks, and the Internet?
a. sales promotion
b. direct marketing
c. publicity
d. public relations
e. advertising
Answer: direct marketing
Which major promotion category makes use of displays, discounts, coupons, and demonstrations?
Which major promotion category makes use of displays, discounts, coupons, and demonstrations?
a. sales promotion
b. direct marketing
c. publicity
d. public relations
e. advertising
Answer: sales promotion
The promotion mix is the company's primary communication activity; the marketing mix must be coordinated for the greatest communication impact. What is NOT included in the entire marketing mix?
The promotion mix is the company's primary communication activity; the marketing mix must be coordinated for the greatest communication impact. What is NOT included in the entire marketing mix?
a. product
b. competitor
c. price
d. place
e. promotion
Answer: competitor
Today's consumers do not need to rely on marketer-supplied information about products and services because they can use ________ to seek out a wealth of information.
Today's consumers do not need to rely on marketer-supplied information about products and services because they can use ________ to seek out a wealth of information.
a. marketing communications
b. direct marketing
c. the Internet and other technologies
d. mass market media
e. informative advertising
Answer: the Internet and other technologies
The use of short-term incentives to encourage the purchase or sale of a product or service is called ________.
The use of short-term incentives to encourage the purchase or sale of a product or service is called ________.
a. direct marketing
b. sales promotion
c. personal selling
d. public relations
e. publicity
Answer: sales promotion
Any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor is called ________.
Any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor is called ________.
a. sales promotion
b. advertising
c. direct marketing
d. personal selling
e. public relations
Answer: advertising
Which of the five major promotion tools includes building up a positive corporate image and handling unfavorable stories and events?
Which of the five major promotion tools includes building up a positive corporate image and handling unfavorable stories and events?
a. sales promotion
b. personal selling
c. direct marketing
d. public relations
e. advertising
Answer: public relations
Which of the following is NOT a major category in a company's promotion mix?
Which of the following is NOT a major category in a company's promotion mix?
a. sales promotion
b. strategic positioning
c. direct marketing
d. public relations
e. advertising
Answer: strategic positioning
A company's total marketing communications mix consists of a special blend of advertising, sales promotion, public relations, personal selling, and direct-marketing tools that the company uses to communicate customer value and build customer relationships. This is also called ________.
A company's total marketing communications mix consists of a special blend of advertising, sales promotion, public relations, personal selling, and direct-marketing tools that the company uses to communicate customer value and build customer relationships. This is also called ________.
a. direct marketing
b. integrated marketing
c. the promotion mix
d. competitive marketing
e. target marketing
Answer: the promotion mix
Generally speaking, a company's marketing channel objectives are influenced by the level of customer service sought, the nature of the company, its products, its marketing intermediaries, its competitors, and the environment.
Generally speaking, a company's marketing channel objectives are influenced by the level of customer service sought, the nature of the company, its products, its marketing intermediaries, its competitors, and the environment.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
Intensive distribution seeks many outlets in a market, while selective distribution seeks only one outlet in a given market area.
Intensive distribution seeks many outlets in a market, while selective distribution seeks only one outlet in a given market area.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
Distribution systems are relatively consistent from country to country, making it easy for international marketers to design channels.
Distribution systems are relatively consistent from country to country, making it easy for international marketers to design channels.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
Under the strategy of exclusive distribution, a seller allows only certain retail outlets to carry its products.
Under the strategy of exclusive distribution, a seller allows only certain retail outlets to carry its products.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
Tiffany & Co jewelry can only be found in a limited number of intermediaries. This is an example of ________ distribution.
Tiffany & Co jewelry can only be found in a limited number of intermediaries. This is an example of ________ distribution.
a. exclusive
b. intensive
c. quality
d. high-end
e. independent
Answer: exclusive
A major role played by intermediaries is to buy large quantities of products from many producers and break them down into the smaller quantities and broader assortments wanted by consumers.
A major role played by intermediaries is to buy large quantities of products from many producers and break them down into the smaller quantities and broader assortments wanted by consumers.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
It is accurate to say that distribution channels are fairly simple behavioral systems in which people and companies interact to accomplish individual company and channel goals.
It is accurate to say that distribution channels are fairly simple behavioral systems in which people and companies interact to accomplish individual company and channel goals.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
In a conventional distribution channel, no channel member has much control over the other members, and no formal means exists for assigning roles and resolving channel conflict.
In a conventional distribution channel, no channel member has much control over the other members, and no formal means exists for assigning roles and resolving channel conflict.
True
False
Answer: True
Which of the following is NOT an area of responsibility for a logistics manager?
Which of the following is NOT an area of responsibility for a logistics manager?
a. information systems
b. warehousing
c. promotions
d. inventory
e. purchasing
Answer: promotions
To reduce inventory management costs, many companies use a system called ________, which involves carrying only small inventories of parts or merchandise, often only enough for a few days of operation.
To reduce inventory management costs, many companies use a system called ________, which involves carrying only small inventories of parts or merchandise, often only enough for a few days of operation.
a. reduction-inventory management
b. just-in-time logistics
c. limited inventory logistics
d. supply chain management
e. economic order quantity
Answer: just-in-time logistics
Which product will most likely be exclusively distributed?
Which product will most likely be exclusively distributed?
a. BMW cars
b. Levi's blue jeans
c. Bazooka bubble gum
d. Prairie Farms yogurt
e. Coca-Cola
Answer: BMW cars
Which type of distribution is used when the producer wants more than one, but fewer than all, of the intermediaries who are willing to carry its products?
Which type of distribution is used when the producer wants more than one, but fewer than all, of the intermediaries who are willing to carry its products?
a. exclusive
b. selective
c. intensive
d. administered
e. corporate
Answer: selective
China and India each contain more than one billion people. However, companies can access only a small percentage of these potential markets due to ________.
China and India each contain more than one billion people. However, companies can access only a small percentage of these potential markets due to ________.
a. inadequate distribution systems
b. indifference toward Western products
c. high regional taxes
d. the religious caste system
e. insurmountable language barriers
Answer: inadequate distribution systems
Sometimes a seller requires its dealers to abstain from handling competitors' products in an arrangement called ________.
Sometimes a seller requires its dealers to abstain from handling competitors' products in an arrangement called ________.
a. exclusive distribution
b. exclusive dealing
c. selective distribution
d. exclusive pricing
e. disintermediation
Answer: exclusive dealing
A producer of a strong brand that agrees to sell its brand to a dealer only if the dealer will take some or all of the rest of the line is using ________.
A producer of a strong brand that agrees to sell its brand to a dealer only if the dealer will take some or all of the rest of the line is using ________.
a. exclusive distribution
b. exclusive dealing
c. intensive distribution
d. a tying agreement
e. disintermediation
Answer: a tying agreement
Sometimes a producer chooses only a few dealers in a territory to distribute its products or services. Generally these dealers are given a right to ________ distribution.
Sometimes a producer chooses only a few dealers in a territory to distribute its products or services. Generally these dealers are given a right to ________ distribution.
a. exclusive
b. selective
c. intensive
d. administered
e. corporate
Answer: exclusive
When determining the number of channel members to use at each level, three strategies are available: intensive, exclusive, and ________ distribution.
When determining the number of channel members to use at each level, three strategies are available: intensive, exclusive, and ________ distribution.
a. multichannel
b. selective
c. international
d. direct
e. extensive
Answer: selective
A conventional distribution channel consists of one or more ________ producers, wholesalers, and retailers.
A conventional distribution channel consists of one or more ________ producers, wholesalers, and retailers.
a. product-related
b. independent
c. contract
d. estranged
e. merchant
Answer: independent
All of the institutions in a channel are connected by flows, including physical flow, flow of ownership, payment flow, information flow, and ________ flow.
All of the institutions in a channel are connected by flows, including physical flow, flow of ownership, payment flow, information flow, and ________ flow.
a. promotion
b. acquisition
c. customer
d. return product
e. by-product
Answer: promotion
Joanie Calvert is experiencing a disagreement with intermediaries in the channel over who should do what and for what rewards. Joanie is experiencing ________.
Joanie Calvert is experiencing a disagreement with intermediaries in the channel over who should do what and for what rewards. Joanie is experiencing ________.
a. a tying disagreement
b. channel conflict
c. channel disintermediation
d. third-party logistics
e. channel intermediation
Answer: channel conflict
To a producer of goods, a greater number of channel levels means ________ and greater channel complexity.
To a producer of goods, a greater number of channel levels means ________ and greater channel complexity.
a. less distance between producer and end consumer
b. less control
c. fewer potential ideas
d. higher taxes
e. fewer channel partners
Answer: less control
Which of the following is NOT a key function that intermediaries play in helping to fulfill a completed transaction?
Which of the following is NOT a key function that intermediaries play in helping to fulfill a completed transaction?
a. physical distribution
b. promotion
c. financing
d. risk taking
e. storing goods
Answer: promotion
In marketing terms, we say that the number of intermediary levels indicates the ________ of a channel.
In marketing terms, we say that the number of intermediary levels indicates the ________ of a channel.
a. depth
b. complexity
c. involvement
d. length
e. width
Answer: length
From the economic system's point of view, the role of marketing intermediaries is to transform the assortment of products made by producers into the assortment of products wanted by ________.
From the economic system's point of view, the role of marketing intermediaries is to transform the assortment of products made by producers into the assortment of products wanted by ________.
a. channel members
b. distributors
c. consumers
d. manufacturers
e. marketers
Answer: consumers
At minimum, a marketing channel consists of a producer and a(n) ________.
At minimum, a marketing channel consists of a producer and a(n) ________.
a. wholesaler
b. agent
c. broker
d. intermediary
e. customer
Answer: customer
Channel members add value by bridging the major gaps of ________ that separate goods and services from those who would use them.
Channel members add value by bridging the major gaps of ________ that separate goods and services from those who would use them.
a. time, need, and form
b. place, possession, and form
c. time, place, and possession
d. place, time, and need
e. place, need, and distribution
Answer: time, place, and possession
Which of the following is NOT a key function that intermediaries play in completing transactions?
Which of the following is NOT a key function that intermediaries play in completing transactions?
a. promotion
b. information
c. matching
d. risk taking
e. negotiation
Answer: risk taking
Another term for the supply chain that suggests a sense and respond view of the market is ________.
Another term for the supply chain that suggests a sense and respond view of the market is ________.
a. supply and demand chain
b. demand chain
c. channel of distribution
d. distribution channel
e. physical distribution
Answer: demand chain
When suppliers, distributors, and customers partner with each other to improve the performance of the entire system, they are participating in a ________.
When suppliers, distributors, and customers partner with each other to improve the performance of the entire system, they are participating in a ________.
a. value delivery network
b. channel of distribution
c. supply chain
d. demand chain
e. conventional distribution channel
Answer: value delivery network
Intermediaries play an important role in matching ________.
Intermediaries play an important role in matching ________.
a. dealer with customer
b. supply and demand
c. product to region
d. manufacturer to product
e. information and promotion
Answer: supply and demand
______ the manufacturer or service provider is the set of firms that supply the raw materials, components, parts, information, finances, and expertise needed to create a product or service.
______ the manufacturer or service provider is the set of firms that supply the raw materials, components, parts, information, finances, and expertise needed to create a product or service.
a. Downstream from
b. Upstream from
c. Disintermediated from
d. Horizontal to
e. Parallel with
Answer: Upstream from
Which of the following is NOT a typical supply chain member?
Which of the following is NOT a typical supply chain member?
a. resellers
b. customers
c. intermediaries
d. government agencies
e. raw materials supplier
Answer: government agencies
Jago takes an anticholinergic/antimuscarinic drug for the treatment of a gastrointestinal condition. What does he likely have?
Jago takes an anticholinergic/antimuscarinic drug for the treatment of a gastrointestinal condition. What does he likely have?
an ulcer
severe constipation
GERD
irritable bowel syndrome
Answer: sever constipation
Arturo is having a medical procedure that requires the application of a local anesthetic, tetracaine, to his eye. What should he know about this medication?
Arturo is having a medical procedure that requires the application of a local anesthetic, tetracaine, to his eye. What should he know about this medication?
This medication may have the effect of causing his eyelashes to thicken.
He should massage his eye vigorously to help the effects of the medication wear off quickly.
He should wear an eye patch because the medication causes a temporary loss of the blink reflex.
Ayla has a severe allergic reaction and is treated with corticosteroids. What gland produces corticosteroids?
Ayla has a severe allergic reaction and is treated with corticosteroids. What gland produces corticosteroids?
thyroid
adrenal
pituitary
islets of Langerhans
Answer: adrenal
Morris, 73 years of age, has been having severe anxiety following the death of his wife. What benzodiazepine is considered to be preferable for older adults because of its relatively short half-life and inactive metabolites?
Morris, 73 years of age, has been having severe anxiety following the death of his wife. What benzodiazepine is considered to be preferable for older adults because of its relatively short half-life and inactive metabolites?
clorazepate
midazolam
lorazepam
In the United States, 70% of diabetics die from ____.
In the United States, 70% of diabetics die from ____.
heart attack or stroke
neuropathy
cancer associated with oral antidiabetic agents
profound hypoglycemia
Answer: heart attack or stroke
Lizzy has severe chronic pain following an automobile accident and her pain specialist gives her a coanalgesic to help control her pain. What class of drugs is often used as coanalgesics?
Lizzy has severe chronic pain following an automobile accident and her pain specialist gives her a coanalgesic to help control her pain. What class of drugs is often used as coanalgesics?
NSAIDs
synthetic opioids
naltrexone analogs
Short-acting beta agonists are ____.
Short-acting beta agonists are ____.
antihistamines
maintenance medications
rescue medications
antitussives
Answer: rescue medications
Elisha has Type 1 diabetes and uses an analog insulin. What is an advantage of analog insulin?
Elisha has Type 1 diabetes and uses an analog insulin. What is an advantage of analog insulin?
decreased risk of hypoglycemia
decreased risk of ketoacidosis
less painful to inject
Martina is being treated for hypothyroidism with a synthetic T4 replacement. What is the advantage of this approach?
Martina is being treated for hypothyroidism with a synthetic T4 replacement. What is the advantage of this approach?
It helps the body make T3, the bioactive form of thyroid hormone.
It substitutes for the bioactive hormone the body is not making.
It slows the excretion of bioactive thyroid hormone.
In her diabetes education class, Vickie learned that when insulin is injected into the arms or thighs, ____.
In her diabetes education class, Vickie learned that when insulin is injected into the arms or thighs, ____.
it is more consistently absorbed
it is more rapidly absorbed
it can reduce the amount needed
it is less likely to cause hypoglycemia
Answer: it is more rapidly absorbed
Bhu is undergoing rigorous chemotherapy for cancer and is experiencing myelosuppression. What type of medication will improve her body's production of neutrophils?
Bhu is undergoing rigorous chemotherapy for cancer and is experiencing myelosuppression. What type of medication will improve her body's production of neutrophils?
erythropoiesis-stimulating agents
colony stimulating factors
hemoglobin synthesis agonists
Julian has just been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma and medications are prescribed. Is he likely to have a prescription for miotics?
Julian has just been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma and medications are prescribed. Is he likely to have a prescription for miotics?
No. Miotics are not used for either type of glaucoma.
Perhaps, but only if he is about to have surgery.
No. Miotics are considered third-line therapy due to side effects.
Oran is taking a bulk-forming laxative for constipation. Bulk-forming laxatives work by ____.
Oran is taking a bulk-forming laxative for constipation. Bulk-forming laxatives work by ____.
moistening the stool through a detergent action
promoting secretion of water into the intestinal lumen
softening and coating the stool with a lubricant
softening the stool by absorbing water and increasing fecal mass to facilitate defecation
Answer: softening the stool by absorbing water and increasing fecal mass to facilitate defecation
Halle is taking an antipsychotic that may cause her to experience extrapyramidal side effects because it blocks dopamine receptors and unbalances cholinergic activities. What antipsychotic might she be taking?
Halle is taking an antipsychotic that may cause her to experience extrapyramidal side effects because it blocks dopamine receptors and unbalances cholinergic activities. What antipsychotic might she be taking?
risperidone
chlorpromazine
aripiprazole
Tegan uses sublingual nitroglycerin for angina and has been warned to store it in a glass container with a tightly fitting screw top away from heat, because it is so sensitive to environmental conditions. How can she tell if, despite her efforts, the medication has lost its potency?
Tegan uses sublingual nitroglycerin for angina and has been warned to store it in a glass container with a tightly fitting screw top away from heat, because it is so sensitive to environmental conditions. How can she tell if, despite her efforts, the medication has lost its potency?
She will get a severe rash and itching.
The medication will change color and smell odd.
She will not feel tingling when she places it under her tongue.
Her vision will blur and her mouth will get dry.
Answer: She will not feel tingling when she places it under her tongue.
As you wait in a drug store check-out line, you read the label on the bismuth subsalicylate antidiarrheal you're holding. You notice that it should not be used by children or adolescents recovering from chicken pox or influenza. Why is a product with bismuth subsalicylate potentially dangerous to children and adolescents recovering from chicken pox or influenza?
As you wait in a drug store check-out line, you read the label on the bismuth subsalicylate antidiarrheal you're holding. You notice that it should not be used by children or adolescents recovering from chicken pox or influenza. Why is a product with bismuth subsalicylate potentially dangerous to children and adolescents recovering from chicken pox or influenza?
Because the patient may develop an intestinal intussusception
Because there is a high risk of overdose
Because there is a risk of Reye's syndrome
Because it contains an opioid and is addictive
Answer: Because there is a risk of Reye's syndrome
Drew is taking an angiotensin receptor blocker to treat hypertension. What medication has most likely been prescribed?
Drew is taking an angiotensin receptor blocker to treat hypertension. What medication has most likely been prescribed?
atenolol
amlodipine
losartan
Sapphire has rhinitis and has been prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid. What is important for her to know about its use?
Sapphire has rhinitis and has been prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid. What is important for her to know about its use?
The medication should be started before symptoms occur.
The medication will relieve congestion but not inflammation.
The medication should be used only when symptoms occur.
The medication should be used only after rinsing the mouth with mouthwash to avoid fungal infections.
Answer: The medication should be started before symptoms occur.
Marsha got a Depo-Provera injection for birth control. How long should she use backup contraception?
Marsha got a Depo-Provera injection for birth control. How long should she use backup contraception?
2 weeks
3 weeks
4 weeks
1 week
Answer: 2 weeks
Adam is astounded when he is diagnosed with osteoporosis, which he has always thought of as a women's disease. What agent can be prescribed that will increase GI calcium absorption and renal tubular reabsorption of calcium?
Adam is astounded when he is diagnosed with osteoporosis, which he has always thought of as a women's disease. What agent can be prescribed that will increase GI calcium absorption and renal tubular reabsorption of calcium?
raloxifene
teriparatide
alendronate
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